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Question:
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Hello,
I am very curious about a language construct I observed when studying Spanish in Spain. I noticed similarities between the grammatical constructs of British English and Spanish Spanish and similarities between American English and Mexican Spanish. I am an American with a British father, and I lived near the Mexican border for quite some time before going to Spain, so I have experience listening to both kinds of English and Spanish.
Here is an example of the similarities I've noticed. In England and in Spain, if you are talking about something in the recent past, the form used is as follows:
I've gone to the park today.
He ido al parque hoy.
In Mexican Spanish and American English we would generally say:
I went to the park today
Fui al parque hoy.
Any knowledge about why these grammatical similarities exist across shared geography but different languages? I find it fascinating.
Thanks!
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