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Subject: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?
Question: I want to embed a Japanese word into my English speech, but I want to be faithful to the Japanese pronunciation, so I enter a ''Japanese pronunciation mode''. Briefly, I understand this as an example of code-switching. For example, the Japanese word for thank you is [aɾiɡatoː]<あ りがとう>. Now I want to say ''it is {a/an} aɾiɡatoː'', or alternatively if [koaɾiɡatoː] was the word I would want to say ''it is {a/an} koaɾiɡatoː''. The assumption is that I am going to be 100% prosodically and segmentally faithful to the embedded Japanese word. To be precise, let # be the switch point. Then English phonology imposes upon you the obligation /a/->[an] / _V But if you actually say [it is an aɾiɡatoː] (and this seems to be the observed form) you didn't apply the above rule, but a rule of the form /a/->[an] / _#V This seems contradictory to your intention to code switch; the intention was for V to be under the sole purchase of Japanese phonology, but clearly V has participated in a rule of English phonology. I don't understand why, when under the assumption of faithful code switching, a foreign import can alter the host sentence.
From: Taylor Brown
Date: 10-Sep-2012
Replies:
  1. Re: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?    Elizabeth J Pyatt     (11-Sep-2012)
  2. Re: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?    Geoffrey Richard Sampson     (11-Sep-2012)
  3. Re: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?    Madalena Cruz-Ferreira     (11-Sep-2012)
  4. Re: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?    James L Fidelholtz     (11-Sep-2012)
  5. Re: What happens at the boundary of a phonological code-switch?    Anthea Fraser Gupta     (13-Sep-2012)

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