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Ask-A-Linguist Message Details
|Subject:||Causes of Loss of Inflection|
|Question:||I am very interested in the growth and decay of the process of inflection in language. As you know, Latin and ancient Greek were highly inflected languages, as were many other ancient Indo- European tongues (Old Slavonic, Sanskrit, etc). My question is: why is it that inflection decayed over time in nearly every one of these old languages? Does technological development somehow trigger inflectional decay?|