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|Subject:||Possible Gendering of Nouns in Old English|
|Question:||Hi! I'm a junior-high student and have been wondering about this question for a while, asking many of my teachers and never receiving a satisfactory answer. I thought a linguist may have the answer to this question, so here goes: As many know, some languages have nouns that must be said in certain ways based on their ''gender''. For example, in French, the words ''la'' (feminine) and ''le'' (masculine), both mean the same thing, or the article ''the'' in English--yet they are used in different circumstances based on the noun they are introducing. In French, for example, the word ''robe'', meaning dress (as a noun), is always introduced with a feminine article such as ''la'', because the word ''robe'' is inherently feminine. For the word ''chapeau'', meaning hat, the word is always masculine and so must be preceded by a masculine article, such as ''le''. In English this is not really the case. Nouns do not have a gender, unless they are gender specific (such as ''she'' rather than ''he''); and even then, the gender of the noun does not change the way we introduce it. However, I have noticed that in some English words and phrases, nouns do seem to be more gender specific than others. Many of the following examples were used in earlier times and are not as commonly used today: ''There she blows'', an expression used to refer to a whale blowing water, refers to the whale as female, even though in today's world we mostly refer to whales as ''it'' (gender neutral). Occasionally we also hear ships being referred to as ''her''- a captain might say about his ship, ''I call her the Santa Maria''. Other examples are some nouns in English having endings on them when they signify different genders, even though they essentially mean the same thing. ''Waiter'' and ''waitress'' is one example, so is ''host'' and ''hostess''. Although I realize the gendering of words in these English examples is not exactly the same as how it is done in French, my questions remain: First of all, what is the term for languages that have nouns with specific genders, such as in French? There must be an easier way to say it than my clumsy description above. Secondly, was English previously a language that had those gender-specific nouns, or are those example phrases above just some of the many idiosyncrasies of this complex language? I thank you in advance for any insight you have on these questions.|
|Reply:||English did indeed have grammatical gender, as did all Indo-European languages. Grammatical (as opposed to semantic) gender disappeared after the Norman conquest, leaving only pronouns like "he" and "she" (and "him" and "her", the only residue left of the case-marking system). Endings like -ess for females in the professions are probably a more recent development, and my guess is that -ess comes from French. Calling ships or whales "she", like hurricanes used to be, could be related to grammatical gender, but at this point is just convention. I hope you continue your interest in language; you might enjoy reading an introductory textbook on linguistics.|
|Reply From:||Susan D Fischer click here to access email|