Featured Linguist!

Jost Gippert: Our Featured Linguist!

"Buenos dias", "buenas noches" -- this was the first words in a foreign language I heard in my life, as a three-year old boy growing up in developing post-war Western Germany, where the first gastarbeiters had arrived from Spain. Fascinated by the strange sounds, I tried to get to know some more languages, the only opportunity being TV courses of English and French -- there was no foreign language education for pre-teen school children in Germany yet in those days. Read more



Donate Now | Visit the Fund Drive Homepage

Amount Raised:

$34724

Still Needed:

$40276

Can anyone overtake Syntax in the Subfield Challenge ?

Grad School Challenge Leader: University of Washington


Publishing Partner: Cambridge University Press CUP Extra Publisher Login
amazon logo
More Info

Ask-A-Linguist Message Details

Subject: Old Norse and Icelandic Vowels
Question: I have three mysteries about Old Norse and Icelandic that I would like to have cleared up.

One is, why is it that Old Norse i-stems like <gestr> and <ferð> have i-umlaut, yet other i-stems like <flug>, <matr> and <skuld> do not (assuming these are all i-stems, of which I'm not sure)?

Another question is, why is it that in Icelandic, <ó> is a mid diphthong [oU], yet its umlaut is now <æ>, a low dipthong [aI], even though this comes from earlier <œ>, which presumably was a mid vowel, [ø:] or similar. Why is it that a former mid long front vowel merges with a low long front vowel, yet the mid long back vowel is kept distinct from the low long back vowel? <œ> could have become [eI] very easily, and more expectedly. It looks to me like the current pronunciation [aI] is a spelling pronunciation, resulting from the graphic merging of the graphemes <æ> and <œ>. Does anyone know whether this is the case?

My third question is, why is it that <o̜> and <u> are fronted to [œ] and [Y] respectively, but <o> was not fronted? I can understand with regard to <u>, because [U] is somewhat further front than [u], [o], or [ɔ]. But how was <o̜> pronounced? Wasn't it [ɔ] or [ɒ]? Why would these be subject to fronting while <o> ([o] or [ɔ]?) was not? Was <o̜> actually somewhat centralized, like [U]?

Regards,

Andrew Jarrette

From: Andrew Jarrette
Date: 22-Dec-2013
Replies:
  1. Re: Old Norse and Icelandic Vowels    Madalena Cruz-Ferreira     (11-Jan-2014)

Back to Most Recent Questions