Ask-A-Linguist Message Details
|Subject:||Examples of a language becoming more agglutinative over time.|
It seems to me - at least when looking at Indo-European languages -
that there ise a tendency for languages to turn more analytical over
time (say we compare Proto-Indo-European to Ancient Greek to
Modern Romance languages). Can you bring an example of the
opposite to have happened (that is to say, the languages having
turned more synthetical)? Furthermore, can you bring an example of a
language having developed additional cases when compared to its
Just the <a
Cycle</a> at work.
It works in both directions.
|Reply From:||John M. Lawler click here to access email|