Ask-A-Linguist Message Details
|Subject:||Causes of Loss of Inflection|
I am very interested in the growth and decay of the process of
inflection in language. As you know, Latin and ancient Greek were
highly inflected languages, as were many other ancient Indo-
European tongues (Old Slavonic, Sanskrit, etc).
My question is: why is it that inflection decayed over time in
nearly every one of these old languages? Does technological
development somehow trigger inflectional decay?
There is no consensus on this issue and there are linguists who argue that
languages lose inflection as the numbers of speakers increase, but I personally
suspect the answer is more complex.
In terms of the larger numbers, one possibility is that if a large population switches
to a new language (e.g. consider all the groups of people who have switched to
English in the last two centuries), then they may actually change their version of that
language to a creole, many of which have simpler inflections.
On the other hand, not all creoles have simplified grammar. For example, the
English based creole Tok Pisin actually has MORE distinctions than English in some
areas because they were inherited from local languages. Tok Pisin distinguishes
singular, plural and dual and also distinguish inclusive we (you, me, someone else)
from exclusive we (me and someoone else but not you).
Another possibility that think is important for Western Europe is that there was an
areal trend to lose inflections, particularly case. For instance, German, Russian,
Lithuanian and Modern Greek have preserved more cases than languages further
West. So loss of inflection is NOT inevitable.
It's also important to remember that modern languages can develop complexities
not found in ancestral languages. English actually distinguishes verb tenses/aspects
that Latin did not (the same is true in Spanish and French). English also has some
vowels which are relatively rare in the world's languages. As modern speakers we
tend to underestimate the complexity of a modern language because we already
know how to speak it.
For Western Europe, the question remains why certain inflectional features were lost,
but not necessarily further east.
|Reply From:||Elizabeth J Pyatt click here to access email|