Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
linguistlist.org>
I missed Carsten Breul's original posting but infer from the replies of Finch, Fidelholtz, and Slobin that he inquired about two things: the grammaticality of eight examples of Prep+relative _who_ from the British National Corpus and the reliability of corpus data for infrequent features. The replies suggest that _whom_ is dead or dying in English, and it does seem doomed. But it is far from dead. As anyone can determine by searching the online BNC, Prep+relative _whom_ remains very much alive. Granted its use in conversation and certain other registers of speech is perhaps negligible as compared with some other registers. But I would not want to say that the structure is no longer part of English anymore than I'd want to rule lexical items out simply because their use is limited principally to certain registers. If editors and some writers prefer to use _whom_, that'd be no reason to lump them with 'pseudo grammarians' (as Jim Fidelholtz may be implying he would) anymore than a careful writer who searches for a more suitable word than the one that jumps first to mind would be a pseudo lexicographer. As to the transcription and editing of corpus texts, especially spoken ones, achieving high degrees of accuracy isn't easy or cheap. Whether all Breul's examples are accurately transcribed is tough to say, although it may be noteworthy that he identifies an inaccuracy of transcription in his example (2). Still, most of the examples are probably transcribed accurately. But with so few examples, caution is especially important. That leaves the question of which registers the examples represent. BNC online produces hundreds or even thousands of examples of Prep+relative _whom_ , leaving Breul's handful of examples possibly marginal, whatever their source. Breul's citations come mostly from informal written registers such as 'church magazines and leaflets' (his example (1)) although at least one is a book published by Routledge and another a magazine cited as "Harpers & Queen. London: The National Magazine Company Ltd, 1999, pp. ??. 3864 s-units, 70773 words." (Note that even this citation may contain an inaccuracy, with its date of 1999.) At least certain aspects of language development seem to originate in one or more registers and later get move into use in others. Language diminution and language death can occur by reversing the process, that is, with features diminishing in one register after another. Lexical items are obvious examples of features that can be limited in registral distribution, and some features of grammar seem likewise limited. What isn't clear, although we probably all tend to side with Sapir on this, is whether Prep+relative _whom_ will fade from use in all registers as definitively as we sometimes seem to claim. And it isn't clear either to what extent _whom_ was ever used in English conversation. Ed Finegan University of Southern California FineganMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueUSC.edu
Dear Listers, As a native speaker of American English in his fifties, my answer to Pieter de Hahn's question: I still teach my (Dutch-speaking) students to use WHOM rather than WHO >when it is immediately preceded by a preposition, irrespective of >whether this occurs in a relative clause or in an interrogative >sentence (To whom were you talking just now?), but would you (and >other native speakers) say that perhaps I'd better not pay any >attention to it? Or should I teach them to avoid the construction with >the initial preposition as much as possible anyway? Are native >speakers beginning to regard this as an awkward or perhaps even >unnatural construction? > > Dr Pieter de Haan would be to continue to teach it. I still use those constructions, although I am quite conscious of it when I do (likewise with "shall/will" distinctions I learned in grammar school, but I use them less). However, I do not have any idea whether most of my interlocutors are doing as I do with rare exception. Apparently, it does not jar me to hear "who" instead of "whom" in these constructions with a preposition. On the other had, when I see them in writing, they do stand out. So I would say this is still a part of semi-formal to formal educated English in America. Sincerely, Bob TrammellMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
This discussion leaves me wondering why "who" and the stranded preposition (who...prep) is all right but prep + who is not. Does this mean that prep + whom is preferred to whom...prep as well? What seems to be happening with "prep whom" is a conflation of style (and prescriptive grammatical correctness) concerning the placement of the preposition (preposed is considered more formal) and the perception that whom is a more formal variant of who. The two go together because both forms are used for the same reason, formal style. The "prep who" construction is like a mixture of formal (prepose the preposition) and an informal (use who instead of whom) style. William J. Crawford U.W. Department of English 5116 Helen C. White Hall 600 N. Park St. Madison, Wisconsin 53706 wcrawforMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuefacstaff.wisc.edu