Editor for this issue: Lydia Grebenyova <lydia
linguistlist.org>
Dear colleagues, The Shina language has verbal sequences which are superficially like the noun-plus-verb conjunct sequences familiar in other Indo-Aryan languages. However the first element in these sequences is not really a noun (nor is it a verb). Examples: tam do�k, 'to bathe (to give bathing)' phal tho�k, 'to throw (to do throwing)' tam and phal occupy the same position in the sequence as a real noun-plus-verb sequence like: al do�k 'to jump (to give a jump)' - however they are not nouns, cannot be modified by adjectives, do not take nominal inflections, and occur only in verb sequences, usually with one or at the most two operator verbs. al, 'jump' on the other hand behaves like a noun and occurs independently. On behalf of a colleague and myself I am requesting references to this phenomenon in other languages, in order to find a descriptive term for words like tam and phal. We are unhappy with "gerund" because the words are not derived from verbs. "Verbal noun" is not accurate as they are not nouns. "Auxiliary" is not accurate because these words do not function like auxiliaries, and in any case Shina has real auxiliaries. "Main verb" will not do because these words are not verbs, and in any case, Shina also has verb-plus-verb compound sequences, for which we would like to reserve the term "main verb" for the first element. I have been loosely referring to them as "indeclinable nominals", but would like some better defined term preferably with a precedent in a description of this phenomenon in another language. Kindly send references directly to me at: r.l.schmidtMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueeast.uio.no With thanks and best wishes, Ruth Laila Schmidt *********************************************** Ruth Laila Schmidt Dept of East European and Oriental Studies University of Oslo P.O. Box 1030 Blindern N-0315 Oslo, Norway Phone: (47) 22 85 55 86 Fax: (47) 22 85 41 40 Email: r.l.schmidt
east.uio.no
I am trying to find out if the following empirical claim about word order is empirically without counterexamples: "In any given language, all verbs (the same for adjectives and nouns) always behave alike with respect to the word order of their argument classes, i.e. there is no language where the verb 'kick' precedes its direct object but the verb 'hit' follows its direct object." The claim refers to "argument classes" in order to allow for differences between different kinds of arguments to verbs, i.e. direct objects are allowed to behave differently from indirect objects, pronominal arguments differently from non-pronominal ones, definites differently from indefinites, etc. as long as all verbs treat direct objects alike, indirect objects alike, etc. What I am interested in is the claim that in word order we do NOT find the kind of lexical idiosyncrasy with verbs that we find in morphology (irregular verbs) or case marking (quirky case marking verb), i.e. the claim that there is no such thing as a 'quirky word order verb', namely one that idiosyncratically specifies its word order relative to one of its arguments. I am asking this, because the phenomenon I am interested in DOES exist with adpositions and modifiers: some languages have prepositions and postpositions (German) and in some languages some adjectives precede the noun they modify whereas others follow it (French). The same is true for modifying adverbs (English). And given that verbs can be marked in item-specific ways in many other domains, it would be an interesting empirical property if indeed no languages exist where verbs (or nouns/adjectives) can show lexeme-specific word order with respect to their arguments. If you know of any potential counterexamples to the 'no quirky word order verb' claim, then I would very much appreciate it if you dropped me a line. I will summarize the information that I receive. Thank you very much for your help! Gert WebelhuthMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue