Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
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Recently I read an article concerning the existence of a universal word order. The author analyzes one argument for a universal SVO word order, discusses what is wrong with that argument, and then proceeds to argue in favor of a universal SOV word order. The most notable features of both arguments presented are 1. The SVO argument belongs to a native speaker of an SVO language and is based solely on other SVO languages. The author of the article, and a proponent of the SOV argument, is a native speaker of an SOV language, the argument is based on other SOV languages and flaws in the SVO argument. 2. Despite validity questions and obvious flaws present in both arguments (i.e., selection of languages used in argumentation and obvious exceptions that were overlooked), they are equally compelling. I spent some time afterwards pondering over the issue of word order. Is there a universal word order? If so, what is it? If not, how can non-native speakers of a language casually acquire languages of the other word order type? Why do human beings use two separate word orders to achieve the same effect? According to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, a person's perception of the world, culture, is influenced by that person's native language. One hundred years earlier, Humboldt suggests that culture, as its benefactor, influences language. While there is plenty of evidence to support both sides of this argument, neither is actually antithetical to the other and it is sufficient to say that language and culture have an independent, yet mutually symbiotic, relationship. Regardless of cultural or linguistic affiliation, all "normal" humans possess the same five senses and a brain that works, more or less, the same way. Generally, cultural affiliations determine one's perception of the world and one's linguistic affiliation; linguistic affiliations determine how one communicates with others. Languages, therefore, represent cognitive perception after cultural influence. This would suggest, therefore, that it is not an individual's perception of the world that is influenced by culture, but the way in which that world is expressed. Many people have had thoughts that were difficult to put into words, and many languages do not have forms that other languages do. The important thing is that people still have these thoughts and ideas, even if the language does not. Thus, whatever influence culture and language have on each other, it starts at the deep structure, where cognition meets language. If the universal word order is SVO/SOV (choose one), then all speakers of SOV/SVO (choose the other) languages would necessarily be speaking a language in opposition to their cognitive processes. This frame of logic begs three questions: 1. What would prompt a culture group to adopt a linguistic affiliation that is antithetical to cognitive reality? 2. What advantage is gained by doing so? 3. How does one explain the linguistic processes involved? In the original article, questions 1 and 2 are ignored. Perhaps this is appropriate, since linguists hardly ever concern themselves with non-linguistic questions of "why". When faced with two equally plausible arguments, however, it is always preferable to select the simpler of the two. In this case, not only are the arguments equally plausible, they are equally complicated. Thus, questions 1 and 2 become appropriate because both sides have presented "equal" arguments as answers to question 3. The answers to the first and second questions are quite easy: they would not. People are generally lazy and, as such, they prefer language systems that are simple and easy to master. If the opposite were true, then the Roman alphabet would never have developed and the Northern Semitic alphabet might still be used. Many people attest to changes in language, but our languages really do not change -- simply our usage of them. In almost all cases of linguistic change, the new form represents a simplification of the older form (for example, enclitic mutation, pictographic vs. phonetic writing systems, and metathesis). Without any advantage to be gained, a clumsy linguistic system that is antithetical to the cognitive process would quickly become extinct in favor of a less complicated, more convenient language. Since both sides provide convincing arguments, yet attribute behavior that is inconsistent with human nature, perhaps they are both right AND they are both wrong? Suppose a woman sees an apple on a table. According to the SOV rationale and Sapir-Whorf, she realizes the apple before realizing that she sees it, and few would argue differently. Thus, cognitive perception of the direct object, 'the apple', precedes perception of the preterit, 'to see'. SVO speakers, therefore, must modify the order of perception to fit the word order demands of their languages. Now, suppose the woman eats the apple and visits her boyfriend, who offers to cook dinner for her. According to the SVO rationale and Sapir-Whorf, the woman realizes that she has already eaten before she realizes that the apple is what she ate. Thus, cognitive perception of the preterit, 'to eat', precedes perception of the direct object, 'the apple'. SOV speakers, therefore, must modify the order of cognitive perception to fit the word order demands of their languages. In truth, it is impossible to say that, 100% of the time, perception is in accordance with the word order of one's native language. As such, it makes sense that every language, as a universal rule, would have a primary word order (SOV/SVO) and linguistic processes for dealing with perception that does not conform to this order. In the case of the universal SVO word order argument, the formulae to explain the derivation of the SOV surface form do not support universal SVO, but do explain how SOV languages deal with SVO perceptions. Similar formulae in the SOV argument neither explain the derivation of the SVO surface form nor support universal SOV, but do explain how SVO languages deal with SOV perceptions. Since there exist occasions when cognitive perception can be either SVO or SOV, it seems likely that both forms are universal at the cognitive level. When these perceptions are converted into linguistic forms, the deep structure of the language forces conversion of perceptions that do not conform to the word order of the language. The only universal truth about word order, then, is that the subject must precede the verb -- but this is another issue.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue