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> -------------------------------- Message 1 ------------------------------- > > Date: Sat, 4 Sep 1999 12:25:31 -0700 (PDT) > From: Dan Moonhawk Alford <dalfordMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuehaywire.csuhayward.edu> > Subject: Re: 10.1289, Disc: Universal Word Order (and Whorf) > <snip> > [witty] > > Not at all Dan, you missed the point. There is no universal word order > because all "true" word orders are universal. From what I have found from > analyzing languages, the closest thing to a universal word order is SV, > and the O is inconsequential. For those who acknowledge VSO as a "true" > word order, which I don't, add that to your pantheon of universal word > orders. In short, searching for a single all encompassing word order is a > fruitless endeavor. > > [moonhawk] > > We couldn't agree more. And I did miss it. Dear witty, Moonhawk, and Linguists: In attempting to analyze CVC(V) roots in a number of language families (details at my website: http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Forum/2803/), I have discovered that these CVC(V) roots are analyzable (or so it seems to me) into CV + CV components, of which the second component is semantically a verb. The first component is only the "subject" when the "verbal" idea is "intransitive", as, for example, in T?A-RHA, 'hand-fly', 'tremble'; most often it is loosely an adverbial (?E-NHA, '(to)yonder-move', 'remove'; P?FE-RE, '(with the)foot-scratch', 'dig'). This is, of course, loosely a Modifier-Modifend syntax; and, if these formulations underlie CVC(V) roots in languages which presently may have a different syntax (as I would claim), there is some reason to posit an *original* word-order of Modifier-Modifend, which would, of course, correlate with OV. The natural development from OV is probably SOV, with additional modifiers being added at the left. There may even be a phsyiological reason for this.All animals view motional and "stationary" objects differently, and motion always attracts more attention than a static object. We might also think of this order in terms of Comment-Topic. I do not want to intrude in your interesting interchange but I thought these observations might be of slight interest to some list-members. Pat
LINGUIST Network wrote: > Date: Sat, 4 Sep 1999 12:25:31 -0700 (PDT) > From: Dan Moonhawk Alford <dalfordMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuehaywire.csuhayward.edu> > Subject: Re: 10.1289, Disc: Universal Word Order (and Whorf) > my "for speakers of simple-syllabic languages" clause was intentional. > Speaking from ignorance, I ask whether the syllable structure of Korean is > more or less complex than that of Chinese. My own hypothesis would be that > phonetic writing systems, even ours, arise when writing systems developed > for simple-syllabic systems only badly fit complex-syllabic phonological > systems. Nope, it hasn't happened that way: languages muddle along with whatever script happens to get handed to them, except in one circumstance: If there's already a grammatical tradition for the recipient language, the writing system can get seriously reworked and come out as something new. I know of three examples: the Indian adaptation of an Aramaic model; the Tibetan adaptation of an Indian model; and the Korean adaptation of (ultimately) a Tibetan model. (This was presented in my paper at the May 1998 meeting at Urbana on East Asian literacies, the publication of which is in limbo.) > And I speak from the experience of developing a Roman alphabet and writing > system for Northern Cheyenne in the early '70s, only to find that writing > Cheyenne in Algonquian/Blackfoot/Cree Syllabary was incredibly more > parsimonious and elegant. So, to phrase it differently: do you think a > phonetic/phonemic writing system is simpler than a syllabary for > simple-syllable languages? It's probably not more difficult, anyway. > [Witty] > > Similarly, the Roman alphabet is simpler than the Northern Semitic > syllabary > > [moonhawk] > > again, for whom? Seakers of N. Semitic langages? The invention of the alphabet (among Greeks, adopting Phoenician) was quite accidental; note that it didn't happen a few hundred miles away, a few centuries later, where Iranian scribes also took over a Semitic script (Aramaic) to write an Indo-European language. (Presented at the AOS in Baltimore and a symposium in Philadelphia, both March 1999; publication of the latter is expected.) - Peter T. Daniels grammatim
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