Editor for this issue: Jody Huellmantel <jody
linguistlist.org>
Hello, I am a student currently attending Columbia University, New York, US, and I am also involved in analyzing and researching Italian Sign Language. I desire to learn much more information than what is available in our libraries in reference to phonemes with the Italian Sign Language. Does Italian Sign Language have a phonetic/phonemic distinction versus spoken languages? If so, can you illustrate this distinction using actual examples from Italian Sign Language? To what extent does a complete, neat parallel exist between spoken and signed languages on the issue of phonemics versus phonetics? For example, can we speak of a relatively small, discrete set of 'phonemic' signs from which other signs are derived? Can we speak of constraints on combinations of signs in the same way that Italian or other spoken languages have constraints on the combination of consonants? I appreciate any assistance whatsoever that you can send me. If much time is needed to translate your information if any, into English then please just send it in Italian and I will translate the material myself. Thank you very much. KimberlinaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
For years I've entertained the theory that the traditional description of the development of English--in which Eng. is identified primarily as a Germanic language with a large complement of Latin-based vocabulary acquired from Norman French--is wrong. Two other possible scenarios exist: 1) That English is actually a direct linear descendant of *Norman French*, with a significant complement of core Germanic vocabulary left over from Anglo-Saxon. 2) More interestingly, that English is actually a *Creole*, having developed out of some sort of Pidgin-like language developed in the very early days of the Conquest. There would, of course, be no written record of a Pidgin, since it would only have been used in day-to-day trade situations and the like. I know that years ago I came across at least one published source that contained an argument similar to the above. But I did not keep the reference, and have been unable to find it again. Does anyone on the list know of any such sources? What do list-memeber Creolists and/or specialists in the history of English think of this theory in general? Hank Mooney hmooneyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemfi.com