Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
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I guess this theme has been the most popular one on the list for the whole year (though most probably NOT the most important one). But why is it so? I doubt it is (as somehow suggested) due to this linguistic education of ours. It's simply because we linguists today have so little in common to talk about. This divergence of interests can be primarily a symptom of a crisis rather than the maturity of the science of language. We've become so much involved in our own 'field of specialty' that linguistics is already on its way to turn into a private science. I think that's why Linguists have welcome allophones so warmly: they come from the already scarce terminolgy we have inherited from the 'wise' linguists of the past. Ironically enough, and in want of a common language, scientists of *language* are 'babbling' (rather than talking) among themselves with the very rare occasion of some good old words of the past (like 'phone', 'phoneme', and 'allophone') heard from time to time: does it mean the tower of Babel may be left unfinished another time? Best. Ahmad R. LotfiMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
1. Allophones: Things or Relations? One could perhaps stress the difference between phones and allophones (and prevent 'abusive' uses of the terms) by pointing out that 'phone' is a non-relational term, whereas 'allophone' is a relational one (roughly comparable to common sense notions like 'man' as compared to 'husband' or 'girl' as compared to 'daughter'; thus, a simple statement like 'X is an allophone' should be as "logically incomplete" as 'X is a daughter'. This view perhaps comes close to what Dan Moonhawk had in mind when he considered allophones as relations, not things, although this kind of terminological opposition doesn't seem felicitous. 2. Allophones, Assimilation and Coarticulation RICHARD JANDA wrote: << As for the issue of coarticulation vs. complementary distribution, the added notion of physiological inevitability strikes me as a red herring, if not a red blue-whale. There are plenty of traditional allophones (allophones as traditionally analyzed) which are in complementary distribution but do not result from coarticulation: e.g., the aspirated realization of English /p/ which occurs initially in stressed syllables, as opposed to the unreleased word-final variant which tends to close, say, _yep_ and _nope_. Thus, without arguing that this is an ironclad characterization, I would suggest that complementary distribution, assimilation, & coarticulation are a set of increasingly specific terms which seem to involve proper inclusion, although they may turn out not to be quite so neatly related. English /h/ and angma are notorious PHONEMES occurring in complementary distribution but obviously not synchronically conditioned by assmilation. >> This view is challenged by JOAQUIM BRANDAO DE CARVALHO who argues against Richard Janda's position concerning the nature of aspirated and non-aspirated stops in English: << This is not true. If aspiration (as well as voice) is to be defined in terms of voice onset time within the C/V transition, it does result from (CV-)coarticulation: C-voicelessness continues after the vowel release; the final plosive is not aspirated because there is no vowel at its right, and therefore no possibility of coarticulation.>> And JOAQUIM even seems to maintain a stronger thesis arguing along the following lines: << I don't mean that all cases of complementary distribution imply coarticulation, though I'd like to suppose it. But, honestly, I confess I can't find a really good example of context-sensitive allophonic alternance that could be described without reference to some sort of assimilation.>> I agree with the skepticism RICHARD JANDA exhibits towards the position that assimilation should be considered a prerequisite for complementary distribution and with his remarks on the notion of 'physiological inevitability'. But I'm not so sure about the relation of proper inclusion he suggests to capture the relation between 'complementary distribution' (CD), 'assimilation' and 'coarticulation' (CA). Leaving aside the notion of 'assimilation' for the moment, the notions of CD and CA, as I understand them, refer to different levels of linguistic description, namely phonology and phonetics, respectively. And it is precisely this distinction, it seems to me, which is in the heart of much of the present debate about the relation between phonology and phonetics. Where exactly do we draw the dividing line, as far as a synchronic description of a language is concerned? Of course, that type of allophony which - contra JOAQUIM BRANDAO - is not conditioned by assimilation or CA seems to be quite unproblematic. It is virtually ever assigned to the phonology of a language: Disagreeing with JOAQUIM, I think the case of aspirated and non-aspirated voiceless stops in English is one good example. In German, aspirated voiceless stops can also occur at the end of a word, without a following vowel, so that in German <Tat> 'deed' both occurrences of the phoneme /t/ are aspirated, even though aspiration of the first [t], followed by a vowel that bears the word-stress, normally is stronger than that of the second, word-final one. According to JOAQUIM's CA-thesis, aspiration in word-final position should not occur. And, by the way, how could a language like Hindi exploit the contrast between voiceless aspirated and voiceless unaspirated stops for phonological purposes, if this constrast were determined by CA and hence (supposedly) physiological inevitability? Contra JOAQUIM, I would also argue that Marc Picard's example of the distribution of tense and lax high vowels in Canadian French is another good example of CD which can not reasonably be traced back to CA or assimilation. In German tenseness or laxeness of vowels is a concomitant feature of phonemic vowel length. Short/lax as well as long/tense vowels both occur in closed as well as in open syllables. But there are other, possibly still clearer cases of CD which can hardly be considered the result of CA or assimilation. One case are vocalic and consonantal realizations of the phoneme /R/ in German, which are determined by syllable structure: consonantal allophones in the syllable onset and vocalic realizations in syllable nuclei or syllable codas. Another case is vowel length in Standard, Tuscan-based Italian: Leaving aside some aspects which are not relevant to the point I'd like to make, short and long vowels are distributed as follows: Vowels have short allophones before long consonants (consonantal length being phonemic in Italian) and long allophones before short consonants. Thus, using the terminology of derivational phonology for expository purposes, <fato> 'fate' is phonologically /fato/ and its phonetic representation is [fa:to], whereas <fatto> 'fact' is underlyingly /fat:o/ and at the level of phonetic representation [fat:o]. Vowel lengthening in Italian is entirely determined by well-formedness conditions on syllable structure and not by assimilation or CA. If we tried to subsume any kind of CD under the notions of assimilation or CA, the latter notions would become so wide that they are at best of very limited use to phonetics as well as to phonology. Coming back to the dividing line between phonology and phonetics, I think that cases which originate in some kind of assimilation (or CA), but where the outcomes of these processes (at least after some time) are sufficiently perceptually different, are likewise uncontroversial: A case in point is the standard textbook example of the distribution of the voiceless palatal [�] and velar/uvular fricatives [x] in Standard High German as realizations of one phoneme. Another is the distribution of voiceless velar stops and alveopalatal affricates in the very early history of Romance languages (i.e. before the allophones got phonologized as a consequence of other developments in the languages) or in Canadian French. Once again, we obviously have to do with language-specific phenomena which should be handled within the phonology of the languages (though these phenomena seem to have purely phonetic origins, and may be, as pointed out by Richard Janda, the result of Ohalian 'exaggerations'). But there are hundreds of phenomena which are mainly phonetically conditioned, due to CA or some other phonetically driven mechanisms, which are only more or less perceptible (or only measureable and not perceptible at all) and whose status is quite difficult to determine. One such example is the status of velar and less velar/more palatal "allophones" of English /k/ in <cow> and <key>, originally mentioned by Martin Salzmann at the beginning of the whole debate. Do phenomena like these have to be treated within the phonology of a language and hence be given the status of allophones? Or do they have to be assigned to the phonetic component? And are there different phonetic components, language-specific and universal? Or do we need graded notions of allophony, i.e. should we speak of allophones that are 'more phonological' (belonging to the phonology, the grammar proper, of the language) and allophones that are 'more phonetic' (belonging to language-specific or universal phonetics)? And how can we decide what is language-specific phonetics and what is phonology? In fact, I personally would restrict the notions 'allophone' and CD to cases of phoneme variation within the phonology of a language. Or should we speak of allophones and CD when, for instance, we consider the fact that English, like virtually every language, has nasalized realizations of vocalic phonemes in the context of nasal consonants (e.g. in <man>)? This case of a nasalized vowel surely is very different from allophonic (or surface phonemic) nasalization as in AE <can't>, in French or in Portuguese. (I think work by Abigail Cohn on nasalization contains very important insights into the question of determining differences between phonetic and phonological nasalization.) Another notoriously difficult topic seems to be vowel lengthening, perhaps covering the whole range from clear allophony/CD-cases as in Italian (see above), to purely phonetic (universal?) cases like differences in vowel length before voiceless and voiced stops with such intermediate stages as allophonic vowel lengthening before voiced continuants in Standard French (given that appropriate prosodic conditions are fulfilled). Thus, I think it is reasonable to restrict notions like 'allophone' and CD to phonological, structural factors. Perhaps, one could do the same with the notion 'assimilation' which seems more appropriate to describe the structural, phonologically relevant aspects of a process where some features of a sound or one autosegment carry/carries over to another sound, whereas the notion of coarticulation focusses on the phonetic, physiological aspects of the same process or the origins of that process. Best regards Andreas Gather Ruhr-Universitaet Bochum Romanisches Seminar GB 8/133 Universitaetsstr. 150 D-44780 Bochum Email: andreas.gatherMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueruhr-uni-bochum.de OR ac.gather
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