Editor for this issue: James Yuells <james
linguistlist.org>
I recently read something about 'neutralisation', I believe within the area of grammaticalization. I can no longer remember where it was, or even what exactly it said. I would welcome any information on the process of 'neutralisation' - what it refers to (in grammaticalization - not phonology) -- and especially if this term has ever been used in order to describe the phenomenon of the overuse of masculine (singular) in gender classifed languages. If there is interest, I will of course post a summary. Thanks, Ruthanna Barnett Lancaster University UKMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
We still don't know if speech evolved onomatopoeically or not, but are there any reliable estimates of when we commenced speaking, i.e. using vocal utterances to convey progressively more nuanced meaning? I've read anywhere from 100,000 BCE to 15,000 BCE. Any web references on the evolution of language, that treat the matter as impartially as possible would be welcome. Dan RaffertyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue