Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
linguistlist.org>
Dear linguists, I'd be interested in some cross-linguistic feedback on pre-infinitival "prepositions" (PIP), and specifically on syntactic situations where an otherwise lexically chosen PIP can be neutralised to a 'default' PIP. For example, in French, the language I'm primarily working on, there seem to be cases where a lexically specified '�' can be neutralised to the default 'de' (and in some cases, this is more or less obligatory): J'ai demand� � voir un m�decin. *J'ai demand� de voir un m�decin. ?Ce que j'ai demand�, c'est � voir un m�decin. Ce que j'ai demand�, c'est de voir un m�decin. J'ai appris � sauvegarder mon document toutes les 10 minutes. *J'ai appris de sauvegarder mon document... Ce que j'ai appris, c'est de sauvegarder mon document... Je continue � travailler. %Je continue de travailler. J'y continue, �/de travailler. [In these cases of default 'de', it could perhaps be argued that the infinitival phrase takes on a slightly more nominal interpretation.] In some cases, it seems that if enough lexical content is inserted between coordinated infinitives, the second infinitive can have a tendency to revert to having the 'default' PIP (NB though the '�' in this example probably doesn't have the same status as that in the previous examples): Je me suis habitu� � prendre des notes en cours ainsi que de les taper � l'ordinateur. My question, then, is: in other languages (both Romance and non-Romance), how does this choice of elements with a similar syntactic function to Fr '�'/'de' compare? For example, German has presence or absence of 'zu', and there seem to be cases where 'zu' as a "default" element can be inserted: Ich muss rad(*zu)fahren und Obst (*zu) essen. Was ich tun muss ist folgendes: rad(?zu)fahren und Obst (?zu) essen. Was ich zu tun hoffe ist folgendes: rad(zu)fahren und Obst (zu) essen. In addition, I'd be interested in information about what syntactic status has been posited for PIPs in these other languages. For example, in French, both complementizer and [Spec, CP] positions have been positied for '�' and 'de'. I will, of course, post a summary if requested. With thanks, Neil - Neil Coffey http://www.french-linguistics.co.uk/Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dear Linguist Users, I'd be very grateful for help in finding a citation. In the 1985 edition of M.A.K. Introduction to Funtional Grammar, on p. xvii one can read: 'meanings are realized through wordings; and without a theory of wordings ... there is no way of making explicit one's interpretation of the meaning of a text.' Does anyone know how, if at all, this is formulated in the 1994 edition (2nd ed.)? The volume is unavailable in our library and in a few others I have tried. Thanks very much in advance. Adam Glaz Department of English, UMCS Lublin, Poland e-mail: adam.glazMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueumcs.lublin.pl