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I The UR=PF Hypothesis Suppose that the underlying form of a word is its phonetic form, as T. Venneman declares. Let me call the underlying form the 'underlying representation' (hereafter UR). Let PF stand for the phonetic form, so we can call Venneman's hypothesis the UR=PF Hypothesis, or UR=PF for short. If UR=PF is true, it means that in American English (AE) a) Adam and atom have the same UR; b) the URs of Adam and adamic have absolutely NO vowels in common and neither do the URs of atom and atomic; c) the grammar of AE does not include a process of shwa formation, for none is needed (shwa is underlain by shwa): AE users simply learn that the LAST vowel of both Adam and atom is a swha, and the same for the FIRST vowel of both adamic and atomic; d) the grammar of AE does not include a process of intervocalic flapping of t/d, for none is needed: AE users simply learn that the first consonant (C1) of Adam is [D] (the flap) and the same for atom; they also learn that the C1 of adamic is [d] but that of atomic is [t]. e) ordinary AE users [that leaves out clever linguists such as my dear friend Jim F] never make any mental generalizations such as 'the first vowel of the morphemes adam and atom are pronounced as the same low front vowel (ae) when they are the only morpheme in the word but are pronounced as the same mid central vowel (shwa) when another morpheme follows' or 'the second vowel of the morphemes adam and atom are pronounced as the same mid central vowel when they are alone and are pronunced as the same low back vowel when another morpheme follows' or 'the C1 of both adam and atom is D (the AE flap) when they are alone but if another morpheme follows, then C1 is [t] in atom but [d] in adam' or 'the way that the morphemes adam and atom are pronounced in all those words is related to stress', or 'the UR of atom in atom is identical to the UR of atom in atomic and the UR of adam in Adam is identical to the UR of adam in adamic and there are principles specifying how these morphemes and all morphemes are pronounced in different contexts.' f) the UR of the first word of the phrase'lemme do it' is different from the UR of the first word of the phrase 'let 'em do it'. Of course you have learned that it is the same word in both cases, but since there is no flapping process (the word is pronounced [leD] in the second phrase you simply have in your head a list of all the pronunciations of that word in the different contexts. (Incidentally there is no process of nasal assimilation either) Oh, and it is [let] in 'let George do it' : And so the list includes [let], [lem] and [leD]. Any others? II. The parable of Vlet I have heard a very clever four year old child named Jenny who is a native speaker of AE and is still illiterate say 'lemme do it' and '[leD] 'em do it' and '[let] George do it.' Last night I showed Jenny a picture of a dinosaur and said to her. 'This is Vlet, rhymes with let". Then she fell asleep. This morning I woke her up and showed her the same picture and asked her "Who's this? "[vlet]', she replied. She then said, "[vleD] is a made-up name, isn't it?" Assignment: analyze Jenny's phonetic behavior in the light of UR=PF. You are free to propose alternatives. Jorge GuitartMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue