Editor for this issue: James Yuells <james
linguistlist.org>
Dear Linguists, I have occasionally heard claims that the English double negative is emphatic, both in Old/Middle English and in modern nonstandard varieties. However, I have never found any supporting argumentation or data accompanyi ng these claims. If a double negative is "emphatic" it seems that there should be systematic alternation in discourse with a "nonemphatic" (single negative) form. On the other hand, as I suspect, the double negative might just be a variant of the standard negative-with-polarity item. Does anyone know of studies that support or refute the "emphatic" description of double negatives, either in Old/Middle English or in modern nonstandard varieties? I will post a summary if warranted. Thanks in advance. Jo Tyler Assistant Professor Center for Graduate and Professional Studies Mary Washington College Fredericksburg, VA 22406 540-286-8059 jtylerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuemwc.edu
I am preparing to conduct my M.A. thesis research involving changes in L1 casual speech when children enter school in L2. The population involved in the present study is in the USA, L1 Spanish/L2 English, and I hope to conduct a companion study within the next year or two in Spain with L1 Basque/L2 Spanish. I am looking for a tool to measure proficiency/mastery of both L1 and L2 for the children in the study and members of their households. I have previous exposure to such a tool (Language Assessment Scales, or LAS) used in the public schools to assess language ability in migrant children entering the system. I do not know if this tool is still considered valid or current, nor do I know how to obtain it. Would those of you with experience using such tools please offer your recommendations and the purchase information if possible? I thank you in advance for your assistance. Lynell R. Williams sktutorcMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueisu.edu