Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
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Dear collegues, I would be extremely grateful if you could suggest any bibliographical material dealing with the semantic alternation in (1) below. (1) a. This tea is hot b. I am hot Whereas the predicate in (1a) refers to a physical property, the one in (1b) refers to a sensation. Sentence (1b) can be paraphrased as 'I feel hot'. In some languages, such as my native Romanian, the semantic distinction is associated with a formal distinction. The NP in (1a) is nominative whereas the one in (1b) is dative. I am particularly interested in: (a) accounts of this semantic distinction in languages where it is not associated with any formal marking. (b) whether there are any languages that use distinct predicates to express (1a) and (1b). I thank you in advance. I will post a summary. Daniela Caluianu danielaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecrest.ocn.ne.jp
I am preparing a course comparing Etype and DRT approaches to intersentential anaphora, and I am looking for literature discussing the general issue of binding across sentences. Before DRT, semantics dealt with sentence meanings individually, and the Etype account makes it possible to retain that traditional approach. It is suggested in Stephen Neale's book (Descriptions, 1990) that this is in fact preferable on general grounds: he says, about a proposal for inter-sentential binding (p 170), "This seems to conflict with our intuitions that each utterance of a complete indicative sentence in a discourse typically expresses some proposition or other (relative to the context of utterance) and hence ought to be evaluable for truth or falsity." This is a side remark that Neale doesn't pursue. Are there other arguments in the literature that semantics ought to treat sentence meanings individually? Please respond by email to dhMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueid.cbs.dk. thanks Dan Hardt