Editor for this issue: Karen Milligan <karen
linguistlist.org>
Re Linguist 14.1914 I agree with you that some prominent language classification theories need to be reexamined. I would prefer to see these theories subjected to rigorous linguistic testing first, and then decisions made about whether or not they seem to be worth pursuing any further. In many cases (e.g., Altaic, Sino-Tibetan, Japanese-Korean) the linguistic relationship proposals do not stand up to serious testing. In cases such as these the languages involved in a proposed classification theory may be relatively poorly known, allowing weak linguistic relationship proposals to survive much longer than they otherwise would. If your method can support, or predict the results of, careful historical linguistic analysis, it would be a useful tool to add to those presently available to linguists working on languages and language relationship theories such as those mentioned. Unfortunately, I have not yet seen your book or Marcantonio's, neither of which is available in our library. If I understand your posting correctly, your analysis is that neither Uralic nor Altaic seem to be divergently (genetically) related language families, unlike the others in your list. I would certainly agree with Altaic, which theory has been (in my opinion) disproven, and I have always had doubts about the Uralic family (though not about Finno-Ugric). What worries me a bit is that according to your figures, Uralic, Finno-Ugric, and Altaic have very similar 'coefficients of variance' (you say Uralic is not as compact as Finno-Ugric, but the difference is small). Yet it has always been accepted by Uralicists that Uralic is divided into two relatively distant (sub)families, Finno-Ugric and Samoyedic. It is not problematic that Samoyedic is more compact, but it is problematic that the coefficients of Finno-Ugric, Uralic, and Altaic (the last being a totally unrelated 'group' of languages) should be so similar. Is it possible that your method essentially measures typological variance? If your method is based on phonological variation, it will not be of much use for examining older language families. Tokharian, for example, was immediately recognized as an Indo-European language when it was first discovered, despite the fact that it ended up belonging to a distinct, previously unknown branch of IE. Yet it has eliminated the three-way opposition in the PIE stops, among other changes it has made. And Armenian has other radical phonological differences. Including these and other languages would surely give IE a similarly high, or even higher, coefficient of variance. So, does your method take into account convergence, and simple chronological change? Christopher I. Beckwith Indiana UniversityMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue