Editor for this issue: Naomi Fox <fox
linguistlist.org>
Dear Linguists, I would like to ask whether in situations where there is a loss of distinction in pronouns or grammatical elements that mark reflexive and non-reflexive expression there is a common path of change. In principle, because reflexive expression is semantically more restricted than non-reflexive, if there were a merge of functions one would expect non-reflexive expression to take over reflexive and not the other way. For instance in Spanish non-reflexive pronouns can be used for reflexive reference but not the other way. Juan lo quiere todo para �l literally Juan wants everything for him, is interpreted as meaning for himself, but the opposite, that is, non-reflexive interpretation with a reflexive pronoun is not possible. However, I have seen two historical processes where reflexive expression has taken over non-reflexive meanings. For instance in Old Spanish the change from dative pronoun ge > se (homonymous with reflexive se) has resulted in the present ambiguity as to reflexivity / non-reflexivity of the Spanish pronoun se when immediately followed by a third person direct object pronoun. And in European Portuguese we have estou a falar consigo I�m talking with you where consigo is originally a third pers. reflexive pronoun meaning with himself. Is it then the merge of reflexive and non-reflexive something common crosslinguistically and if thats the case, can it happen in either direction? Ill be glad to post a summary of responses if there is enough interest. Thanks, Andr�s Enrique-AriasMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dear linguists, Is it truly an universal rule that vowels are usually lengthened before the consonants /l/ and /r/? Please, provide me with some references on this question. Thank youMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue