Editor for this issue: Naomi Fox <fox
linguistlist.org>
I've noticed that the use or non-use of ''the'' in English seems to mark the distance or intimacy the speaker has with his or her subject. I first noticed this when I naively paid to see ''Titanic'' when it first came out: Most people in the movie referred to the ship as ''the Titanic,'' but the researchers at the very beginning referred to it simply as ''Titanic.'' Like, ''I first explored Titanic three years ago.'' I've also seen this happen when older people talk about ''the MTV,'' e.g. ''I don't like my son watching the MTV.'' Also, diseases -- ''I'm wearing a mask so I don't get the SARS.'' In the first case, the omission of ''the'' seems to indicate intimacy, whereas the inclusion of ''the'' in the other two cases seems to indicate some sort of distancing. Is there any theory or scholarship on this? I'm afraid I'm just a linguist wannabe, and not the real deal, so I hope I'm not asking an obvious question. Subject-Language: English; Code: ENGMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I'm currently working on the spatial gram "On" and more especially, I'm trying to map out its semantic network. But I am having trouble finding the prototypical meaning as well as the lexical root of this particle. If you have any ideas please could you send me an e-mail at the above address.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue