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Dear All, 
 
I have an admittedly amateur question. 
 
I understand that there are two types of Celtic tongues, Q-Celtic (older) 
and P-Celtic (younger). I also understand that Q-Celtic survived on the 
fringes of Celtic lands — Ireland, Iberia. I understand further that 
P-Celtic apparently developed in the interior of Celtic lands — Gaul, SE 
Britain. 
 
I understand yet further that one way of assessing P vs Q Celtic is looking 
at words for 'four' and 'five'. 
 
Now, please allow me to make an amatuer observation: 
 
German and Greek resemble P-Celtic b/c the Greek *PENTA and the German 
*FETWOR / *FUMPF both involve the P-sound (Grimm's shifted in German?). 
 
Likewise, Latin and Slavic resemble Q-Celtic b/c the Latin *QUATOR / 
*QUINQUE and the Russian ''chetiri'' (4) all involve the Q-sound. 
 
Furthermore, as with Q-Celtic, the ''Q-IE'' tongues (Latin, Slavic) exist 
on the fringes of IE settlement. Whereas the ''P-IE'' tongues (German, 
Greek) exist in the interior of the IE lands. (Greek being something of a 
stretch.) 
 
Lastly, I understand that Greek, from Homer and Hesiod c.700 bce, is known 
to have been ''P-type'' since 700 bce. 
 
And that ''P-type'' Celtic did not develop until c.500 bce (seemingly 
having something to do with La Tene culture's emergence around that time, 
500-450 bce), and that in 700 bce (Halstatt culture??) Celtic was ''Q-Type''. 
 
And that German must have been ''P-type'' from c.500 bce when 
Proto-Germanic is attested / inferred during the ''Pre-Roman Iron Age (500 
- 1 bce)'' that seems to coincide with the La Tene culture = ''P-type'' Celtic. 
 
So my question is, aside from does this observation of mine have any merit 
(?), could ''P-Type'' Greek have influenced Celtic and German through trade 
contacts? Or, could some other influence have jointly affected Greek, 
Celtic, and German to shift those tongues from ''Q-Type'' to ''P-Type''? 
 
(I understand that Prof. Theo Vennemann argues that Punic had contact with 
Proto-Germanic speakers, not to mention Punic contacts with the La Tene 
Celts, nor to mention Greece (the Greek Alpha-bet = Punic Aleph-Beth)... 
so, could Punic contact have, through trade or something, shifted Greek, 
Celtic, and German from Q-Type to P-Type??) 
 
I would really like to hear some discussion on this from those more 
knowledgeable than I.