Editor for this issue: Dan Parker
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I study typologically the so-called ''supercompoud forms'' and I would like to ask you whether any paper exist on an English supercompound construction alike to the French passé surcomposé or German ''Perfekt II'', viz. ''I have had done'', ''he has had seen'' and the like.
It is rather frequently attested in the Internet, as Google shows, although it seems to be hardly normative. Here this constuction is rejected as ''wrong'': http://www.usingenglish.com/forum/general-language-discussions/432-difference-between-have-had-done-have-done-did.html
Is anything known about socio-linguistic or territorial status of its spread?