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I suppose I'll start this by noting my inherent bias: My (maother's) family moved to Montreal in the early 1800's from Boston. They've been there ever since, but my sister and I are the first two to make any stab at learning even conversational French (outside of required courses at school). That said... Bill 178 came into effect in 1988 banning any language other than French on outdoors signs. Within its first year, hundreds of stores were charged and fined under the law. Some refused to pay, and there were isolated incidents of rocks thrown through windows, etc.... As the Montreal Gazette noted in (I believe) the summer of 1989,, all the stores charged under the law had English signs. No fines were laid in Chinatown (where most of the signs are still in Chinese), the Portugese neighbourhood still has Portugese signs. The Ukrainsko-Kanadska Narodna Banka still retains its Cyrrilic sign. The english bookstore accross the street from McGill (an English university) now has only one sign outside "Paragraphe - Livres anglais". Advertising new books in its window is a bit of a problem... Like many other people I know in Montreal (both anglo- and franco-) I would be perfectly satisfied with a law requiring all outdoors signs to bear French or even be predominantly in French. But a ban on other languages is a frightening form of 1984-style censorship. And worse yet, it is claimed not to be a direct attack on the English language, but as I said above, *only* English language signs are being charged under the law.... I can't really see any more direct form of attack on the English language. 2- As for the discussion about whether or not "European French" and Quebecois are distinct languages or just dialects, I am frankly surprised to find the issue taken up on the LINGUIST list. In order to make any sense of the argument, we would have to agree on some fixed criteria for "language-hood", something which doesn't appear to have any consensus anywhere. Are French and Italian merely dialects of Romance, or are they seperate languages ? What about the "dialects of French" spoken near the Italian border and the "dialects of Italian" spoken near the French border, which are linguistically more similar to each other than to the "languages" of their respective capitals ? The question to me seems to be a priori unanswerable at best, if not completely meaningless. Certainly there is the question of mutual intelligibility, but between whom ? I spent time in highschool in a town of 4500 people on Quebec's "North Shore", and have a hard time understanding spoken French in Paris. But someone from say, Quebec city, would have less trouble in Paris, but would run into trouble in any random small town in, say SE France. And what about the islanders odf St Pierre and Miquelon (islands which are technically part of France, but are in the Gulf of St Lawrence off the coast of Newfoundland)? Which French do they count as speaking ? I think the question is really undebatable... Just my humble opinions. Jonathan Bobaljik (L'tete carre a Boston)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In reply to Mark Seidenberg's posting on the language situation in Quebec, I am distressed by the general American habit of blaming behavior we don't approve of on cultural differences, often with a disclaimer that we are dealing with difference not inferiority but with a clear implication "what else can you expect from these foreigners." Through the last two major American military interventions (Iraq and Viet Nam) mass bombing of civilians sites was accompanied by explanations that "they" don't have the same respect for life that we do. Now Seidenberg explains the language laws in Quebec with the phrase "The language laws seem oppressive to Americans brought up on the first amendment, but there are vast political and cultural differences between ... Quebec and America that shouldn't be underestimated. In Quebec there is a very explicit distinction between individual rights and collective rights. The language laws are seen as preserving the greater good of the society as a whole..." I find this statement attributing the Quebec language laws to the French lesser attention to individual rights odd coming from a nation which has repeatedly passed English Only laws (many intended to be at least as Draconian as Quebec's). In fact, if we look at language policy making units in which a single prestige language is spoken by 80% or more of the population, they are overwhelmingly legally monolingual in that language. The situation in Quebec only strikes us as unusual because Quebec is a French speaking island in a larger predominately English speaking nation. This fact accounts for some of the added vehemance with which French is defended in Quebec as well as greater feelings by the anglophone population that they are entitled to greater rights. I would add that it is quite practical in Quebec to finish your education entirely in a minority language in state supported schools. This is not possible in the state of New York. In rereading the above I should probably add that I do not hold Mark Seidenberg responsible for either the Iraqi or Viet Namese conflicts.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
For a very good overview of Montreal history and the language question, I recommend Marc Levine's _The Reconquest of Montreal_ which came out last year. He's an urban historian, not a linguist, so the perspective is somewhat different - and it is very well done. His conclusions include the point that as francophone Montreal becomes more economically successful and therefore competitive, there is a new pressure to learn and use English to enter world (and especially American) markets. Margaret Winters Southern Illinois University - Carbondale [End Linguist List, Vol. 2, No. 183]Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue