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The recent discussion about legislation promoting French in Quebec and about the English-only movement in the United States suggests some broader questions. Can we say anything more general about the rights which should belong to any and all language communities? Some communities are in the ma- jority in the places where they live, like Finnish-speakers in Finland; others are not, like Sindhis in India. Some communities are _in_situ_, like Hungarians in modern-day Hungary; others are recent arrivals, like Turks in Berlin, but yet form communities (i.e. communicate with each other and keep a culture going, unlike individuals who may have some mother tongue different from German but have most of their contacts with the German- speakers). Are rights to schooling, access to media, unhampered use of the language in public places, etc. inalienable?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I differ from Sheldon Harrison in finding this debate to be an interesting one; I think that language policies AND the attitudes towards them are valid subjects for discussion on this network. Of course, we run into a situation where instead of studying the responses of others to a situation which closely concerns them but not us, WE are among those who have strong feelings on the matter. It then behoves us to acknowledge those feelings, which are relevant --as Julie Auger remarked--to the policies and their future, while maintaining such constant moral values as courtesy and respect for others. Many of the contributors to this exchange, such as Auger, have done an admirable job of this. My thanks to all of them for their thoughtful and interesting input; I have learned a lot (and I daresay will learn more!). Elise Morse-GagneMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
This will much shorter than my last posting. Honest. To keep things short, I will not bring up new issues, but address those from previous postings. I will by and large address only those remarks which were addressed to me, with an exception or two where a factual error is evident. Julie Auger writes: > ... it > seems to me that the purpose of the Linguist network is primarily > to share information and not misinformation. I shall take this as my starting point. > Quebec is protecting its own culture is that, by encouraging the > official use of French, ... Quebec does not *encourage* the official use of French. It *requires* it. Otherwise it would never have come up in the present context. Now, my turn: Definition of 'joyerie': what happens when my fingers become temporarily decoupled from my brain. I meant to type 'joaillerie'. Don't know what went wrong: trying to spell the pronunciation perhaps, or interference from Spanish, or something else equally lame. Back to Ms. Auger: > Lay Quebecois have increasingly taken > control of the destiny of their province, and they are proving to > be quite successful at it. I would hope they're succesful; they don't have any competition. > This results in more openness to the > rest of the world, and the immediate rest of the world is Eng- > lish-speaking, so there is now much more contact with English. I'm honestly puzzled as to how eliminating the number of English speakers one can have contact with, and eliminating all possibility of seeing written English on public display, can be construed either as 'openness' or as 'more contact'. The only interpretation that makes sense to me is that you are referring to the francophone business community. I have read that they are very outward-looking. I don't think this justifies your statement, though; I'm not sure it's what you mean, either. > The fact that a few lexical items > differ does not suffice to take the two varieties of French so > far apart as to make them no longer the same language... Sigh. First: all evidence I've heard suggests that phonetics is the highest hurdle, lexicon moderate and syntax no problem. But what irks me is that you keep *reversing* what I've written. My first posting says the language laws > ...require public transactions > (e.g. signs in stores) to be French (though I assume they'll allow > European varieties as well as Quebec French). The sense of "European varieties as well as Quebec French" is not ambiguous. They're all varieties of one language. In my second posting I wrote > I don't recall talking about Quebec french and (let us say) standard > European french as if they were two different lgs. My comment concerned > the acceptability of non-Quebec french on signs... > Certainly the two are geographic varieties of one language ... That's two statements and one correction. Let's try it one more time: *They are not separate languages or 'almost' separate languages. They are dialects.* And: *I never said they were separate languages.* > With respect to Paris dictating to the whole world what French > should be: Something else neither I nor anyone else has suggested. > If Quebecois feel > that "stop" is an English word and that it is therefore prefera- > ble for them to use "arret", why not? It is not *preferable*, it is *required*. Once again, that is the whole point. This also addresses my original question: what varieties of French are allowed on signs? To the degree that recognized loanwords are forbidden, the answer is: no variety. Since everyday Quebec French, like any other language community, uses loans, the mandated subset of French for public use does not reflect Quebec French either. > The fact that > certain English-speakers who once lived in Quebec later left When the number of departing anglophones hits six figures, as it did some time ago, the word 'certain' in this context rather badly understates the case. Try 'many'. Enough of this. I leave the Quebec floor open to anyone with the stamina to take it. -ceh [End Linguist List, Vol. 2, No. 197]Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue