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Mike Hammond responds to my remarks on the unproductivity of -ity: > I think it would be a mistake to incorporate this notion of > productivity into our formal theory of morphology. Specifically, I > think that determining what the "possible words" of a language are is > a linguistic question and determining what the occurring words are > is largely a nonlinguistic question, hinging on history, technology, etc. Two responses, one morphological, the other more general: 1) A full discussion of the methodological issue of whether the theory of Morphology should be concerned with 'possible words' would take us even farther from the original topic of this thread: I'll try to stick to the basics. Mike presumably thinks that *ridiculosity should be treated as a 'possible word', cf. Lieber(80). By this logic, **succinction is also demonstrably a possible word, since -ion _does_ attach to adjectives in a handful of cases (precision, distinction, etc.). Thus in a theory of 'possible words', **succinction, *ridiculosity and conclusiveness all have the same status. I argue that this is emprically inadequate, and that an adequate model of the grammar must contain the information that -ness is productive, -ity is common but unproductive (except after -able, etc), and that the attachment of -ion to adjectives is marginal (though possible). Note that this does not mean that I'm interested in 'occurring words', in the sense of a fixed corpus such as a dictionary, which would be subject to the practical complications that Mike mentions. I'm interesting in what I call 'acceptable words': i.e. words that speakers accept. For instance, speakers accept unfamiliar words in -ness (subject to complications like Blocking); they do not generally accept unfamiliar words in -osity. I take this to reflect a fact about the grammar; as I see it, such acceptability judgements have the same status as grammaticality judgements in syntax, and it is impossible to build an adequate theory without them. 2) Returning to the conception that there is a complete dichotomy between 'generated by rule' and 'completely idiosyncratic', I used a morphological example because that's where I know the facts best, but the same point can be made in other ways. 'Rules' that apply to single lexical items have been proposed for semantics by Lieber(80) and Pesetsky(85). Something similar might be needed for phonology: arguably the vowel alternation of say/says, and the voicing of the fricative in American pronunciations of equation are cases, although it depends on the details of the analysis. Any such phenomenon where the analysis is forced to state a 'rule' that applies in only one case, and thus is not a statement of a generalization, constitutes a breakdown of the dichotomy as I understand it. wrt John Coleman's remarks: The approach I would take to such alternations is fairly different, but I certainly agree that we're dealing with regularities that have to be stated in the grammar. It's worth emphasizing that I _do_ believe in rules, and in fact I believe these phenomena are rule-governed. It's just that this means something rather different in a lexical theory than it does in the SPE model, or any model that accepts the dichotomy I've been arguing with Mike about. -- Harry Bochner -- bochnerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuedas.harvard.edu
Rick Woycik writes: If your phonological theory doesn't have much to say about spelling, then it probably doesn't have much to say about phonology either. Two points: Phonology needn't have anything at all to say about spelling. It is there as an abstraction from the phonetics - and the spoken language should be the prime source of enquiry, not the written one. Which means good phonetic observation and ignoring spelling conventions etc. which can hamper one's hearing and prejudice it. The connection with spelling is by-the-by. Perhaps phonemics has something to say about spelling but phonemics is certainly not the whole of phonology (despite the impression one might get from reading most books on phonology). Many linguists abandoned the phoneme long ago - is Rick WOycik seriously saying that non-segmental, non-phonemic phonological theories don't say much about phonology just because they are independent of the writing system? Richard Ogden University of York England rao1Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueuk.ac.york.vaxb
Rick Wojcik writes: >If we accept that the prototypical alphabet is in one-to-one corespondence >to phonemes... It should be kept in mind that alphabets are often borrowed rather than created by those who use them. Such is the case with some of the earliest forms of writing we have, i.e. Akkadian, who borrowed their syllabic cuneiform from speakers of Sumerian, a sui generis language. The Hebrew alphabet also was derived from the Aramaic, and Greek from Phoenecian. Often, changes were not made to these syllabic or alphabetic system, e.g. Hebrew has one letter for both /sh/ and /s/. In short, I think that the term "prototypical alphabet" might be misleading, and a one-to-one correspondence unlikely in the event of borrowing, and unlikely except within a very narrow range of speakers even in the event of a created alphabet. Lesli LaRocco (OZVYMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueCORNELLA) [End Linguist List, Vol. 2, No. 210]