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My thanks to those who have sent me comments on the syntax of range-specifying NPs such as "between 45 minutes to an hour". The grammatical problem that these things pose is that they resemble PPs but behave like NPs. Semantically, the prepositions name beginning and end points on a scale, rather than a relation between an NP and a verb or situation. Right now, I am inclined to think of them as headless post-modifying PPs. So (1) behaves as if it had the syntax of (2): (1) Between 45 minutes and an hour elapsed. (2) A time between 45 minutes and an hour elapsed. One could still analyze the subject in (3) differently, i.e. more like the subject of (4): (3) Between 5 and 10 minutes elapsed. (4) Approximately 5 minutes elapsed. In other words, one could still claim that 'between 5 and 10' fits into a kind of 'measure slot' in the NP. But if you have to live with (1) anyway, then maybe (3) could be treated as a headless postmodifier, too. The headless postmodifier idea might also help to illuminate the nature of double-preposition constructions: (5) Set the timer to between 45 minutes and an hour. (6) Remove debris from around the pipe. I.e. "...to a time between 45 minutes and an hour" and "...from the space around the pipe". Any comments on this line of thought would be appreciated. -Rick Wojcik (rwojcikMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueatc.boeing.com)
Some weeks ago, while I was away, Bob Poser posted a query regarding claims (esp. those of Aharon Dolgopolsky) about the stability of words with certain meanings. Poser correctly points out that Dolgopolsky's study is marred by the fact that he did not publish his data, that his sample of languages, while large, was unrepresentative (only Old World languages), and that for the languages in the sample we have to take his word for the fact that he correctly identified the words which have remained unchanged since the oldest reconstructed stage and those which have been replaced. I personally think the last objection is not very important, precisely because the sample was skewed in favor of languages Dolgopolsky knows. More generally, I do not know of a better study of word stability, and I think that the purpose for which this study was designed was such that it was not an unreasonable thing to do. The purpose was to devise a way of identifying groups of languages which it is reasonable to assume are related. It was NOT intended to supplant the conventional methods of comparative linguistics which are used to (a) prove beyond a reasonable doubt the existence of a relationship and (b) reconstruct a proto-language (or fragments of one). As Poser points out, Dolgopolsky's partially ordered list of the "stablest words" (including such items as the first and second person as well as interrogative pronouns, negation, the numerals 2 and 3, body parts such as heart and tongue, etc.) has been referred to in recent accounts of the work on remote relations. (To be sure, in the (in)famous Starostin quotation about the word for 'hand', we are dealing with a word which is NOT on the Dolgopolsky list.) However, it should be noted (and I think has been emphasized in recent press accounts) that neither the Nostratic nor the Sino-Caucasian hypothesis (nor even the less believable Dene-Caucasian and some other theories) are based on the stability argument. Whether correct or not, these theories are based on claims of massive and nontrivial sound correspondences and morphological relationships involving large chunks of the morpheme stocks of the languages involved. In fact, it is possible to poke holes in parts of the stability theory by pointing out that, for example, the numerals 2 and 3 are NOT shared by the different Nostratic branches, as Dolgopolsky himself often points out in other contexts. Having said this, it would be very important to get more work on the whole stability question. My own feeling (and it is supported by various kinds of data, not the least the fact about 2 and 3 in Nostratic) is that stability of words is dependent on culture, and hence not universal in the standard sense of the word. Thus, if a given people did not count at all, then it would not have words (much less stable ones) for any numerals, and so on. Hence, I would be skeptical of lists such as Dolgopolsky as having a completely universal status, but used judiciously such studies could prove useful. It certain seems to be a common assumption of ALL comparative linguists that I know of that you base your work on basic alias core vocabulary and hence that there is such a thing as basic or core vocabulary and this tends to be stable enough to allow meaningful comparison. It would be nice to have both a more precise formulation of this and to know the limits of what we are allowed to assume. (I should add that Dolgopolsky himself in a later article noted that first and second person pronouns become quite UNstable in languages spoken by certain kinds of highly stratified societies (such those of Europe, S., SE., and E. Asia, but he concludes that such exceptions to his claims are easy to contain. I think that the problem is much more difficult, and indeed in principle insuperable.)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Norval Smith's comment that the original, Scottish place-name was pronounced --I mean, IS pronounced--[hustMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuen] suggests the fate of the word "coupon", which has initial [ky] in many peoples' speech despite coming from French with a [ku]. According to the OED that very word in fact was an early borrowing (whoops) which has survived to the present in Scots English but was re-borrowed more recently into the rest of the language. How do Scots say it? [End Linguist List, Vol. 2, No. 0265]