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I'm wondering if there are any spoken languages in which the verb has to agree with its indirect object, but must not agree with the direct object. (If I'm not mistaken, this is true for ASL-clauses with verbs such as GIVE). Furthermore, I'd like to know what different types of strategies languages use when there are not enough formal means to express the agreement relations which are obligatory from a syntax point of view. What I have in mind is something like the situation we find in Georgian (cf. Stephen Anderson's paper in NLLT 1984): V has to agree with SU, DO and IO, but there are only two slots for agreement suffixes. For 3rd person DOs, this does not create a problem since the pertinent suffix is phonologically empty. If a clause contains a SU and an IO, 1st and 2nd person DOs must be replaced by a possessive pronoun + tavi (_head_), a construction which is 3rd person from a formal point of view and therefore helps to solve the agreement problem. And now something completely different: Many writing systems use double letters to represent e.g. vowel length. Are there any writing systems which use triple letters? I'm not thinking of Dutch cases such as zeeen, where the third e belongs to a different morpheme. Are there writing systems which systematically reduplicate letters to express plurality - as in Spanish abbreviations such as EEUU (estados unidos)? Thanx Gisbert fanselowMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueunipas.fmi.uni-passau.de
Russian-language descriptions of Cyrillic orthography, particularly in medieval manuscripts, have a special term (neprikrytyj; literally "uncovered") to refer to vowel letters that are not preceded by consonant letters. Does anyone know whether there is a suitable English-language equivalent for this term? I should emphasize that this is an orthographic, rather than linguistic, question, since vowel letters do not necessarily correspond to vowel sounds. But a weak linguistic analogy would be a term that identifies syllables with no onset. Thanks, DavidMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I am working on the adoption of the Scandinavian 3pl pronouns into English in the Middle Ages. I would be very interested to learn of any other instances of pronoun borrowing (transfer, etc.), whether between closely related or unrelated dialects/languages. I have Parker's dissertation discussing Westfoehring, and have heard that there may be a S American language which has borrowed Spanish pronouns, but can't track down the reference. Any leads? Elise Morse-Gagne [End Linguist List, Vol. 2, No. 0279]Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue