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Just a quick question to those of you who have been spreading this interesting information on indirect object agreement: How do you know an indirect object when you see one? Do you use semantic criteria only (indirect object being some sort of benefactive, recipient or whatever) or do you consider syntactic properties like passivization possibilities, word order, case marking or what? I'm just curious because it is not always clear to me what people mean by "indirect object". Hoeskuldur ThrainssonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In a number of (dialects of) languages, structures such as the following are well-formed: I wonder who that you will meet Examples are Modern Hebrew (cf., e.g., papers by Shlonsky in LI & NLLT), varieties of French (cf. e.g, fn. 8 in Pesetsky's 1981 TLR-paper on CTP- effects), dialects of Dutch (cf., e.g. Koster's Foris book), and dialects of German (cf., e.g.. my own _Konfigurationalitaet_). In one or the other way, a number of theories of complementizer-trace phenomena predict that these languages/dialects should allow the subject to be extracted from complement clauses with an overt complementizer, and for the languages just mentioned, this prediction appears to be borne out. Andrew Radford (Syntactic Theory and the Acquisition...,, 1990, p.118) states that I wonder what kind of party that he has in mind is "acceptable to a certain percentage of English speakers". I'm wondering if these speakers would also find who do you think that will win the next elections grammatical (which is fine, e.g., for speakers of Texan English, cf. Sobin's 1987 NLLT paper). Gisbert Fanselow (not Jan Olsen) fanselowMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueunipas.fmi.uni-passau.de