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David Stampe asks: >Have usage or facts changed so that it now makes sense to speak of "babbling in X"? His question arises I think from a confusion about the term "sign language", which is used with several different meanings e.g. "the particular sign language spoken where I live", "sign language(s) in general", or (most relevant) to the babbling issue "the sign MODALITY", i.e. sign as opposed to speech or writing. So with this third sense it makes as much sense to say "babbling in sign language" as "babbling in the vocal modality" or (perish the thought, should it ever happen) "babbling in writing" (!). --- John ColemanMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
David Stampe's point (that babbling in X, where X is a language, is a contradiction in terms) is well taken. However, I think the main point of Petitto's argument is that X is not a language but a modality, in which case gestural babbling would be no more a contradiction than vocal babbling. Susan FischerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
to David Stampe: See the Science article -- important point is that deaf children's gestures when exposed to sign immediately are qualitatively different from hearing children's, and are non-random, showing the linguistic elements. VMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Has anyone looked at babbling in deaf-blind children? I would like a re-print of the article, but I couldn't make out the return address. Prof. Bill McKellin mckeMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueunixg.ubc.ca Department of Anthropology and Sociology University of British Columbia Vancouver, B.C. V6T 1Z1