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Some additions to the compositionality debate. I focus on what compositionality is, and hint that idioms should be drawn into the debate (most of the stuff that follows is taken from my PhD-thesis (in preparation)). > Dave Chalmers talks about compositionality as a constraint and Kai von > Fintel characterizes it as a methodological principle. My position is that compositionality is ONE OF THE PRINCIPLES underlying the relation between form and meaning (syntax and semantics if you like), but that it is definitely not the only one. In the view of formal semantics, there are compositional and non-compositional expressions, period. However, there is more to this. Defining idioms, as is customary throughout the linguistic literature, as expressions which are non-compositional, is similar to defining nouns as words that are no prepositions. Here is my definition of the PROPERTY idiomaticity Idiomaticity is a property of aspects of the meaning of complex (multi-lexemic) expressions which states that these aspects are exclusively a part of the meaning of the expression as a whole. With this definition it is possible to classify expressions as idiomatic or compositional, and to state WHICH aspects of an expressions are idiomatic and which are compositional. > one might > try to say that one or more of the words in the idiom has a special > meaning just in this one collocation, but that would make the semantics > context-sensitive in some sense that people seem not to like. Such compositional approaches (in terms of functions), as proposed in the already mentioned Partee (1984) and in Gazdar et al. (1985), do not work. (for discussion, see my paper in the proceedings of the First Tilburg Workshop on Idioms and that in COLING 1990.). In general it is not possible to account for idioms under whatever definition of compositionality. > For a canonical idiom like _spill the beans_, we ought to say > that it is analysable lexically, and that the meanings of its constituent > parts are accessible to an etymologically-minded user. This is not the whole story, It has frequently been pointed out that analysability of the meaning of idioms correlates with the possibility of idioms to occur in syntactic constructions. The most important point to be made here is that compositionality is ONLY ONE OF THE DESIGN PRINCIPLES of the relation between form and meaning in natural language, besides idiomaticity, contextuality etc. etc. Cheers, Erik-Jan van der Linden.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Two quick thoughts to add to the current discussion of compositionality. First, there has been some talk about getting a compositional semantics to mesh with an independently motivated syntax. It's worth noting that in an orthodox Montagovian approach, at least, there wouldn't be sucha syntax so the issue couldn't arise. To Montague, the job of the syntax was to define the set of meaningful expressions, so the syntax is already to at least some degree semantics-driven. Second, if I understand some of the remarks that have been made about ambigui- ty, I think they are based on a confusion. Take a sentence like *The lawyer pressed the suit* which is at least two ways ambiguous; agree for the sake of discussion at least to localize this ambiguity in the VP, specifically in the existence of multiple senses for *press* and *suit*. If you take Frege's principle in a very literal, hard-headed way I think all it means is that once you have selected senses for *press* and *suit* (do it anyway you want), the interpretation of *press the suit* (assuming that the syntactic structure is also specified, say via a tree or bracketing) is a function of the meanings of these elements, the meaning of *the*, and the manner in which they are syntactically combined. That is to say, there is a unique meaning derivable from the meanings of the parts, once it has been decided what meanings to assign to them. The principle of compositionality doesn't say anything about how you assign meanings to basic expressions. A similar observation applies in reference to deixis. Michael KacMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Jacques Guy informs us that an infinite set of strings presupposes either an infinite set of symbols or the existence of infinite-length strings. This is simply false: with a finite set of symbols and no upper bound on the length of strings, you get an infinite set of strings. And please note: no upper bound does not mean the same thing as infinite-length!Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Jacques Guy writes:
The set of possible expressions, utterances, what-have-you
can be infinite
(1) if and only if the number of language elements (phonemes,
or morphemes or whatever, depending at what level you
look at it) is infinite,
OR
(2) if and only if there exist utterances of infinite length.
This isn't quite correct. It is sufficient that there exist no finite
bound on utterance length. That is, each utterance can only be finitely
long, but utterances of any finite length are possible. This is often
expressed as: "Utterances can be arbitrarily long." It is substantially
different from saying that individual utterances can be infinitely long.
So, for example, the formal language consisting of all strings of the
form:
I ate a dish of potstickers {and another dish of potstickers }*.
is infinite. But each sentences in it is finite, e.g.:
I ate a dish of potstickers and another dish of potstickers.
Although you might be able to argue that there is a performance limit
on sentence length, you can find quite long examples along such patterns,
e.g. in the writing of schoolchildren attempting to pad out an essay
to a required number of words.
Margaret Fleck
Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In... Date: Mon, 23 Sep 1991 08:34 EDT From: The Linguist List <linguist%tamsun.tamu.eduMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuepucc.PRINCETON.EDU> Jaques Guy writes: Alexis Manaster Ramer <USERGDD8
WAYNEMTS.BITNET> wrote about compositionality: "...whereas the compositional rules generate an infinite set of expressions." No. The set of possible expressions, utterances, what-have-you can be infinite (1) if and only if the number of language elements (phonemes, or morphemes or whatever, depending at what level you look at it) is infinite, OR (2) if and only if there exist utterances of infinite length. This inference is false. A simple counterexample: Although there are only a finite number of digits (= language elements) and although no decimal numeral (= utterance) is of infinite length, there are undoutedly an infinite number of decimal numerals. Both conditions are contrary to fact. Since the inference is false, the veracity of the premises doesn't matter. If you want to argue that the number of possible utterances is finite, you must appeal to constraints that are violated by the "language" consisting of all decimal numerals. This point, however trivial, must be worth making, seeing that Langendoen and Postal argued in a book titled "The Vastness of Natural Language" that the cardinality of the set of utterances was not only infinite, but greater than aleph-null, aleph-one, aleph-two, in fact, if I remember correctly, greater than any conceivable transfinite number. This is, of course, a ridiculous statement, since utterances are, at worst, real-valued functions of air-pressure versus time; and there are only aleph-one of those. But I have not read Langendoen and Postal. It is, in fact, not only infinitely smaller than aleph-null, but very very much smaller than one googolplex (but it is perhaps greater than one googol). This is unwarranted. In fact, aleph-null is probably the correct cardinality, assuming that "the set of possible utterances" is a valid object of discourse.