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Sally Thomason does not seem to commit herself as to whether she believes that all sound change (in those cases where we have the evidence) starts out in a restricted environment and only becomes "unconditioned" at the end of a protracted process. If so (and I suspect this to be true), this would have revolutionary implications for phonological theory, since every framework I know of allows (indeed, encourages) us to write processes of the form X -> Y (without a conditioning environment).Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
> From: Sarah Thomason <sgt+Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueA.NL.CS.CMU.EDU> > > When Bert Peeters refers to the `myth of unconditioned > sound change', he is using the term `unconditioned' in a > way that differs from mine and, I think, from most other > people's use of the word. It doesn't mean `without a cause'; > it means `without any phonological conditioning factor, i.e. > in all phonetic environments'. When I chose to interpret "unconditioned" as 'without a cause' I did so to denounce the inappropriateness of the term. Instead, it looks as though I have convinced a certain number of people about my utter ignorance of what most historical linguists mean when they use the term. As a matter of fact, I am not at all unaware of what is usually meant - but it is about time we start thinking about a substitute for a word which is potentially misleading. When the labels "conditioned" and "unconditioned" were coined, historical linguists did not know better (witness the other label for "unconditioned", viz. "spontaneous"). Nowadays, we do know that there are no changes without causes. So why do we stick to the old terminology? > From: jack rea <JAREA
UKCC.uky.edu> [Jack Rea starts off with observations very similar to those made by Sarah Thomason (hi, Sally!). The examples from the history of the French language which he then very conscienciously reproduces are among those that during my undergraduate years in Romance Philology I have heard more often than I really wanted to - it's nice to be reminded of them after so many years :-). After providing the data, Jack goes on thus:] > Needless to say, it is > always possible to manufacture a new label for this sort of thing if one is > distressed by terminology, but usually such terminological wars are not worth > the effort. How many today use Martinet's term 'moneme' for what is usually > called 'morpheme', despite his preaching for it. Nor has Jakobson's use of > 'contrast' prevailed to the extinction of its paradigmatic use. I agree if the implication is that NOT ALL terminological wars (the examples from Martinet and Jakobson are well chosen) are worth the effort. However, I tend to believe that SOME are - and the one which is being discussed here is of the latter kind. Dr Bert Peeters Tel: +61 02 202344 Department of Modern Languages 002 202344 University of Tasmania at Hobart Fax: 002 207813 GPO Box 252C Bert.Peeters
modlang.utas.edu.au Hobart TAS 7001 Australia