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On the "cui bono" of political correctness: The "PC" concept is invoked by conservatives to suggest that liberals are unthinking doctrinaires: i.e., it's a variant of the "knee-jerk" label. A divide-and-conquer strategy has pitted liberal camps against one another as well, with those opposed (like most Americans) to ideology placing the PC label on other progressives whose political stances are theorized. -- Rick RussomMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
No one has mentioned socalled "plain speech" traditional among members of the Religious Society of Friends (Quakers). Examples: Let me give thee this gift for her. Thee has spoken to my condition Is thee prepared? The particular levelling of the agreement paradigm is I believe preserved from a 17th-century dialect of the north of England, where Quakerism was strongest in the early years. Originally, use of the singular was refusal to use the plural of respect to supposed social betters, along with refusal to doff hats, bow, etc., in recognition of irrelevance of rank with respect to "that of God in every person." Today it seems to function as a mark of membership in "birthright Friend" families with perhaps some extension to "convinced Friends" who may take it up. One hears of an incensed teenager retorting to an offending sibling something like "Thee--thee *you*, thee!," whose point hinges on the insider/outsider function. Bruce Nevin bnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebbn.com
Steve Seegmiller asks if there is any evidence that political motives may be found in Soviet alphabet reforms for the Turkic languages. The early reforms from Arabic to Roman, and the subsequent replacement by Cyrillic, clearly had political motivation. Bernard Lewis offers the following summary in _The emergence of modern Turkey_ (Oxford Univ. Press, 1968:432): "In the spring of 1926 a congress of Turcologists assembled in Baku, under Soviet auspices. One of its decisions was to introduce the Latin in place of the Arabic script in the Turkic languages of the Soviet Union, and in the following years a number of varying Latin scripts were introduced in Central Asia. One aim of this Soviet policy of romanization was to reduce the influence of Islam; another was no doubt to cut off contact between the Turks of the Soviet Union and those of Turkey, who were still using the Arabic script. The contrary consideration--that of maintaining contact between the different Turkic peoples--induced some Turkish nationalists to favour the adoption of the Latin script in Turkey. When, eventually, this was done, the Russians countered again by abolishing the Latin script and introducing the Cyrillic, thus reopening the gap between the Soviet Turks and Turkey." As for the next phase--the establishment of differing Cyrillic alphabets for the various Turkic languages--I can find no direct evidence that these inconsistencies were politically motivated. Nicholas Poppe, in his _Introduction to Altaic linguistics_ (Harrassowitz, 1965: 56), speculates: "It is hard to say what the reasons for rendering the same phonemes with so [sic] different letters are. They may be lack of coordination of work in this field in the various countries of the USSR or the result of a deliberate policy of making closely related languages and dialects unintelligible to their neighbors." The latter possibility is a widespread suspicion, and I would be interested in knowing if there is any direct evidence for it. -Dan Slobin (slobinMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecogsci.berkeley.edu)
Many people who may have less Latin that Jonson attributed to Shaxper continue to be overheated about the use of 'data' as a singular. In Latin this form was the neuter plural (nominative and accusative) while 'datum' was the nominative and accusative singular. These people feel that to 'misuse' a plural like 'data' as a singular, taking singular demonstratives and verbs, does violence to Latin, and thus to English. If these people knew more about Latin, they would realize that already in Classical Latin such second declension neuter plurals were often used as singulars syntactically, sometimes with collective force as is clearly the situation with 'data'. Further, the Romance languages have carried this further, so that it is not at all unusual for one Romance language to take the singular of these former neuters as a singular, and make a new (masculine) plural, and for another RL to take the neuter plural as a singular, creating a new (feminine) plural. There are also traces of this in other Indo-European languages, leading one to suspect that the same situation held in part for PIE (whatever that was). For Latin, a handy reference might be Ernout, _Morphologie historique du latin_ #2A, or for Romance treatments Rohlfs _Grammatica storica della lingua italiana...: v.2 Morfologia #384. Let us not stand in the way of an historical process that has been under way for millenia (My god, there's another one of those wretched neuter plurals!)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue