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> Date: Tue, 8 Oct 91 14:12:42 EST > From: j.guyMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuetrl.oz.au (Jacques Guy) > > To me, a finite lexicon (which I > see as the tautology of tautologies) can express new ideas and > referents, without additional words, even without new compounds, old > words simply taking on new meanings, sometimes related to the old ones, > sometimes not. "Old words simply taking up new meanings" - infinite polysemy is rearing its ugly head again... I'm not saying that new meanings cannot be added to old words; there is absolutely no evidence whatsoever in support of such an extreme view. However, lexicographers and linguists tend to posit polysemy a little too easily, I believe, and consider as a separate meaning something which is purely and solely the effect of the context in which a word is used. If a word has always been used in contexts A, B, C until P, it has one or more meanings (probably not as many as there are contexts); now, if that word starts being used in a context Q, which is entirely new, it does not automatically follow that it takes on a new meaning. The existing meaning or one of the existing meanings may be sufficiently coloured by the new context to create the impression that a new meaning has just come about. Lexicographers and linguists alike tend to underestimate the power of con- text. I for one was very impressed by Charles Ruhl's work on monosemy, where he posits that words are necessarily monosemic (that's the working hypothesis) until proven otherwise. Ruhl's thesis cannot yet be considered as final: it does need tuning - but it is a hypothesis worth looking at. Reference: Charles Ruhl, *On monosemy. A study in linguistic semantics*, Albany: State University of New York Press, 1989. (A review is forthcoming in the Canadian Journal of Linguistics; other reviews I know of are by Barbara M. Birch in *Language* 66:4 (1990), pp. 881-882, and by Adrienne Lehrer in *Journal of linguistics* 27:1 (1991), pp. 298-300.) Dr Bert Peeters Tel: +61 02 202344 Department of Modern Languages 002 202344 University of Tasmania at Hobart Fax: 002 207813 GPO Box 252C Bert.Peeters
modlang.utas.edu.au Hobart TAS 7001 Australia
I hate to differ with Avery Andrews, but I do not see that increasing the quality of life-support and such justifies assuming that sentences have no upper bound on their length. Unless that is we assume that human life spans have no upper bound, and even then there are problems connected with the fact that might have spend your entire (unbounded) life span just saying ONE very long sentence. The assumption that sentences have no upper bound on their lengths strikes me as a reasonable idealization but in no way superior to the one that Langendoen and Postal advocate. What continues to puzzle me about this whole debate, I should add, is that a lot of people seem to talk as though (a) something important rides on these distinctions and even as though (b) they were things you could decide on factual grounds. Whereas I believe that the people who came up with these ways of modeling things (people like Turing, for example) would have agreed that we are just dealing with convenient idealizations. In general, infinity is a convenient way of talking about very big sets and especially ones which are difficult to list (but easy to define), like the set of sentences of a language, for example. Not that I am advocating the idea that the set of sentences of English is REALLY finite, as some have. I would argue that it REALLY is not anything, for the whole notion of the set of sentences of English is itself a convenient fiction. (This last point incidentally is what Chomsky refers to in his recent writings when he says that E-language is not a real object.) What does everybody else think? Alexis Manaster RamerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Hmmmm ... As a sometime graduate student at the University of Pennsylvania, a Harrisian to me is a follower of Zellig, nor Roy. Ironically, the former would appear to represent the epitome of what the latter seems to despise. What, indeed, is in a name? Michael KacMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Recent discussion motivates me to elaborate on some of my earlier remarks. First, I claimed that a linguist is one who (saliently) engages in the study of language. Randy LaPolla reports that in Chinese and Japanese the closest translation of "linguist" suggests some sort of prestige or fame. It would seem, then, that languages (or cultures?) conventionalize the degree or manner of salience that is appropriate for "-ist" words. It has also been observed -- I forget by who, and apologize -- that "linguist" applies more readily to undergrads in Britain that in the US. This again MIGHT indicated a difference in conventionalization; but it might alternatively reflect the fact that undergrads at British universities are almost as specialized as grad students in America. Second, I did NOT say that a linguist is one who does research in linguistics, which would indeed be virtually vacuous; I claimed that a linguist is one who does research into language. This, I think, is a perfectly straight-forward definition that causes difficulties only if you think in terms of exclusive categories. A psychologist or philosopher can be a linguist (or not) just as easily as a breadbasket can simultaneously be made of wicker (or not). The reason that you would hesitate to call, say, Donald Davidson a linguist has to do with Gricean concerns. While it is a salient fact that Davidson studies language, the coordinate fact that Davidson is a philosopher is yet more salient. This is because administratively defined departmental boundaries constantly impose themselves on the every-day activities of academics.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I appreciated Bert Peeters' affirmation that to do semantics is to do linguistics. Yet when he writes that "there is a place out there in linguistics for the study of meaning", I sense a lingering apology for semantics as the poor relation of linguistics. The study of meaning is no poor relation -- if it is not a central concern in linguistic analyses, it ought to be. Phonology, morphology and syntax are core to linguistic study because 1) each studies explicit elements of language structure and hence 2) rigorous analytic frameworks are readily available. The language phenomena we call semantics is elusive: distinguishing word knowledge from world knowledge and pragmatic knowledge is, to put it mildly, tricky. Development of a rigorous methodology for the study of linguistic meaning is still in its early stages. Yet, if we accept Saussure's notion of the sign as a pairing of signifier and signified (form/content), and if we accept that language is a system of signs then meaning is central to language. Any study of language which omits examination of meaning is incomplete. Thus, not merely is there 'a place out there in linguistics for the study of meaning' but if we take seriously that language is a sign system then the place of meaning ought be as central in linguistics as the signified is to the construction of the sign. Rebecca S. Wheeler Utah State University Logan, Utah 507E 100N Smithfield, UT 84335 REBWHLRMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecc.usu.edu