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I would like to respond to the query regarding teaching deaf children in Spain. I am bilingual in ASL and English, also I am a Deaf teacher of English here at NTID. The 'tendencies' that are mentioned carry with it tremendous assumptions. I would like to present another viewpoint for you to consider in the goal of having deaf children learn more than one language. -When priority is given to verbal communication, deaf children are deprived the right to a fully accessible first language. I argue for teaching the child first the language of the deaf community in that area that deaf people 'retreat' to after leaving school. Although it is likely that the children do learn this banned language in the bathrooms and hallways of the school, they are not given formal instruction in the language. Jim Cummins and Marcel Danesi have written an enlightening chapter in their book on Heritage Languages (1990). In this chapter, they argue for using ASL a the language of instruction and teaching about the culture of Deaf people to encourage academic success. This is not to say that the spoken language should not be taught. Although the focus should probably remain on teaching the written language of the majority culture, it is precisely in learning the spoken language for communication where it 'depends on the capabilities of the child.' Learning language for deaf children has not been so much a problem as being exposed to a fully accessible first language. As for case studies, I have a few students here from Spanish-speaking homes who can speak Spanish, English, and sign ASL. At the school for the deaf where I used to teach, students were taught to read and write in a second language (spanish) with about the same success as the public high school spanish courses (except, of course, they also learned to speak spanish). Thus, if you are interested in teaching a second language (whether it be written or spoken), it seems the best way to do that is to ensure that the students have competnecy in their first language (e.g a signed language). You might consider how the deaf adults communicate with Spanish and Basque speakers. What are their needs socially and economically related to these two groups? If a deaf child came from a Basque family, it seems unfairly oppressive to decide to teach them Spanish only. Thanks for the opportunity to respond. Here are some other references: Cummins, J. 1980. The cross-lingual dimension s of language proficiency: Implications for bilingual education and the optimal age issue. TESOL Quarterly 14 (2) 175-187. Lane, H. (to be published) The mask of benevolence: Biopower and the Deaf Community. Newport, EL (1984). Constranins on learning: Studies in the acquisition of American Sign Language. Papers and reports in Child Language and Development, 23, 1-22. Model Progams at: Indiana School for the Deaf, California School for the Deaf, Fremont, and The Learning Center in Framingham, MA. I'd be happy to provide other references.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
RE: ASL Literature It is a popular belief that ASL does not have any literature. However, this claim is based on the misconception that in order for a language to have a literature, that language must posses a formal writing system. In fact, many non-written languages in the world have a rich oral literature. Several researchers in the field of sign language studies are investigating the "oral" literature of ASL (e.g. Sam Supalla, U of Arizona; Clayton Valli, Gallaudet U.; and Ben Bahan who, believe it or not, is at BU!) In fact, the nature and characteristics of ASL literature will be discussed in a session at the upcoming conference titled "Theoretical Issues in Sign Language Research" to be held in San Diego, August 5 - 8, 1992. Sam Supalla who is an expert on ASL narrative and storytelling will chair the session which will discuss (among other things) what it means to have an "oral" literature, how ASL literacy compares with English literacy, and the structure of ASL narratives, poetry, and song. Watch for a postings here on the net which will provide conference details and list the other session topics. Karen Emmorey Conference ChairMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Scott Delancey writes: >I'm also puzzled by the puzzlement that >some people express about the meaning of positive anymore--isn't it >exactly the same as the meaning anymore in negative contexts, minus >the negation? Do you want some more? I want some more. Don't you want some more? ?I don't want some more. [I don't want "some more". <sarcasm>] Don't you want any more? I don't want any more. Do you want any more? *I want any more. Isn't the meaning of "any" in the starred sentence exactly the same as in the corresponding negative contexts, minus the negation? If one's dialect has a discontinuous morpheme including negation, not ... any, then the question makes no sense. Similarly, for those whose dialect has a discontinuous morpheme including negation, not ... anymore (where the not may be lost if the effect of negation is carried by some other form), the question makes no sense. (The connection between any and any more > anymore (American spelling) is fairly direct, I should think. I don't want it anymore. I don't want it on any more occasions. More on this below.) The situation is more complex than positive vs. negative anymore. Examples from Webster's 9th New Collegiate (W9NCD): Regular in negative contexts: No one can be natural anymore --Mae Sarton in yes/no interrogative contexts (also negative): Do you read much anymore? in conditional contexts: If you do that anymore, I'll leave and in "certain positive constructions": The Washingtonian is too sophisticated to believe any more in solutions --Russell Baker. For all of these, a verbose alternative like "for any more time" or "on any more occasions" works fine. No one can be natural in any more [social] situations. Do you read much on any more occasions [of leisure]? If you do that any more times, I'll leave. The Washingtonian is too sophisticated to believe in solutions any more occasions. W9NCD gives sense 2 "at the present time: NOW" with example "hardly a day passes without rain anymore," and adds the usage comment: In some regions the use of anymore in sense 2 is quite common in positive constructions <listening is a rare art anymore! --Alma Holland (_Writer's Digest_)> <In a way he almost felt sorry for him, any more (James Jones)> While most common in Midland settlement areas of the U.S., this usage is also found in other areas. It has been noted at least since the 19th century in England and may be of British dialectal origin <`Quite absurd,' he said. `Suffering bores me, any more.' --D.H. Lawrence> For these examples, I can with a struggle get a verbose alternative to work: ?*Hardly a day passes without rain on any more occasions. ?Listening is a rare art in any more situations. ??In a way he almost felt sorry for him, on any more occasions of seeing/hearing him. ?Suffering bores me, in any more experiences of it. I would say that the reduction from some such verbose form to "anymore" has been conventionalized in some dialects, but not in mine. Maybe some positive anymore native speakers can come up with verbose paraphrases of this sort that seem natural to them, and provide the rest of us a clue or two. From your question, I guess that you are a native speaker, Scott? Bruce Nevin bnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebbn.com