Editor for this issue: <>
>Could anyone provide me some information about lexical borrowings? I've >noticed that when Chinese bilinguals converse in Chinese, they sometimes have >English words. Any literature in this aspect? Thanks in advance. > 00Z0ZHAOMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebsuvax1.bitnet Dear 00Z0ZHAO, Try Aspects of Chinese Sociolinguistics - essays by Yuen Ren Chao, edited by Anwar S Dil, Stanford UP, 1976, particularly the very short paper on 'skipants'. Steve Harlow University of York
>I am looking for references to works on Chinese NPs (in the hope of finding >data for a DP-analysis approach to Chinese.) Does anyone know likely > sources? >Laurel Smith Stvan >Northwestern University There is an article by Jane Tang in Linguistics 28-2 (1990) on 'The DP analysis of the Chinese noun phrase'. Steve HarlowMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Madhav Deshpande (it's good to hear from an old friend) asks about the origin of the Dravidian reftroflexes according to the Nostratic theory of Illich-Svitych, suggesting that there is a possible difficulty involved, since other Nostratic languages do not appear to have retroflexes. First, I think this is a false problem, for the fact that Indo-Aryan languages have retroflexes whereas most of the rest of IE does not is not considered a problem for the "Indo-European theory". Nor is the fact that Swedish and Norwegian have retroflexes and the rest of Germanic lacks them considered a problem for the "Germanic hypothesis". Second, I personally believe that Dravidian is the weakest link by far in the Nostratic chain. Thus it seems to me virtually certain that IE is related to Uralic, almost as certain that both of these are related to Altaic (and entirely certain that the Altaic languages are indeed related to each other), and much much less certain that this group is related to Kartvelian and Afroasiatic (although quite likely in each case), but the Dravidian connection seems to me less than a 50% shot. Third, Illich-Svitych appears to have believed that Dravidian retroflex t. comes from Nostratic voiced d whereas Dravidian non-retroflex t comes from Nostratic voiceless t and glottalized t'. In the case of the laterals and nasals, he appears to have believed that the Dravidian contrasts correspond to Nostratic ones (which are also reflected in Uralic) between different different laterals and nasals (whose phonetic features are identified with less precision). And in the case of the rhotics, the contrast is again is supposed to be Proto-Nostratic, involving two rhotics which are also supposed to be distinguished in Altaic.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Madhav Deshpande (madhav.deshpandeMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueum.cc.umich.edu) challenges Nostratic advocates to account for retroflexion in proto-Dravidian. I had long understood that Indo-Aryan acquired retroflexion from Dravidian, as an areal feature. Hock dismisses this customary view in his _Principles of Historical Linguistics_, arguing that it can be accounted for entirely internally to Indo-Aryan (p. 500, with reference to pp. 77-9). Similar arguments apply to Dravidian wrt other languages considered related in Nostratic. While I am agnostic re Nostratic, I must say this looks like a red herring to me. >. . . As far as we know, retroflex consonants are reconstructed >as far back as Proto-Dravidian. If Dravidian is a branch of Nostratic >family, what happens to retroflexion? Do we reconstruct retroflexion >to Proto-Nostratic? Or, do we claim that Dravidian independently >developed retroflexion? Any suggestions? Bruce Nevin bn
bbn.com