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Names and definiteness: Obviously, the name of an individual is definite, and this is noted in languages that mark definiteness in other ways than in the use of articles. In Turkish, for example, the accusative is restricted to definites, and it is, of course, used with names.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
>2) >Date: Thu, 21 Nov 91 15:26:39 EST >From: Michael Newman <MNEHCMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueCUNYVM.CUNY.EDU> >Subject: Re: 2.804 Names > >Just a clarification on Sergio Balari's comments on names in Catalan. While the >use of a special article for males 'en' is normative, most of the time--in in- >formal situations, at least in the Barcelona area--what you hear is the normal >masculine article 'el.' Thus, I am known as'EL MICHAEL' not'EN MICHAEL.' >The use of that form would have been excessively formal, approaching the >level of the Spanish form 'don.' (In fact, etymologically, 'en' and 'don' are >cognates. I tend to disagree with this observation. While it is true that "el" is used in informal speech, for me (as a native bilingual Spanish/Catalan speaker born in Barcelona) "en" is not at all as formal as "don" is in Spanish (although the feminine "na" is in fact very formal). Talking to my father about my brother I would refer to him as "en Gabriel", but NEVER as "don Gabriel". There is, however, an alternance "en/el" in Catalan, but I think it is mostly due to phonological reasons. For example "en Joan", "en Pere" (and "en Michael") are perfect, but not "n'Alfred" or "n'Eloi". In the latter case "l'Alfred" and "l'Eloi" are used instead. >Unfortunately, due to the peculiar sociolinguistic situation marked >by greater than average linguistic insecurtiy, Catalans will often report what >they think they should say, when asked, rather than what they do say. But you are absolutely right in this point, although Catalans seem to be a bit more relaxed in their linguistic judgements lately. Sergio Balari -- Sergio Balari, U of Saarbruecken, Dept. of Computational Linguistics balari
coli.uni-sb.de -- +49 (681) 3024502 -- fax +49 (681) 3024351
On David Gil's comment on the "triangle" for personal names with articles: Hungarian would like roughly on the side connecting Flemish and Greek, and it evidences the phenomenon optionally, as a kind of stylistic thing. Without thinking about other languages that do the same sort of thing, I always assumed a sort of Hungarian-internal explanation. Hungarian distinguishes between the "definite" and "indefinite" conjugations, the former with definite direct objects and the second without (indefinite object or no object at all). Hungarian also has explicit definiteness markers like articles, demonstrative pronouns, and so forth. Some NP's without such explicit markers are also definite for the purposes of determining which conjugation to use, e.g., any morphologically possessed noun is definite, and personal names without articles are also definite. This is reasonable semantically, but does create a mechanical deviation from the syntactic pattern of definite verb--explicitly definite NP. So I always assumed that articles were first used with personal names in direct object position, and from there spread to other constructions. Note that articles can optionally be used with possessed nouns as well, on more or less the same stylistic basis (perhaps it is more common than with names). Perhaps this is wrong and/or naive. Or perhaps other languages that have articles with names also offer evidence for the need to mark inherent semantic definiteness explicitly? George Fowler Dept. of Slavic Languages Indiana University Ballantine 502 Bloomington, IN 47405 (812) 855-2624 [office] (317) 571-9471 [home]Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
In D. H. Lawrence's "The Fox," he refers frequently to one of his pair of female characters -- the one who is more or less the "male" in what we assume to be a lesbian relationship -- as "The Banford." I've always felt uncertain about how to paraphrase what that usage registers, beyond a certain obvious irony. And I don't think it's native English; I think DHL is anglicizing something he's picked up from Italian or German.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue