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Over the years I have heard a number of discussions of the "needs washed" construction found commonly in the south of Ohio, west Virginia and Kentucky. Yesterday I was talking to a couple from near Dundee in Scotland who also use this construction. Is it possible that the form comes from Scottish immigrants to those areas? More important, is there any evide3nce that it did originate this way? Laurie StoweMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
The query on reduplication reminds me of a question that I've been meaning to ask. Does anyone know of work in historical linguistics (of any language or language family) where the source of morphological reduplication can be established? E.g., did it originally come about from a prefix of fixed form that underwent assimilation? Or, did it originally start out as full repetition of the base morpheme (mokile-mokile), which was later truncated (mo-mokile)? Or is it the case that reduplication has not arisen recently enough in any language family for the source to be established beyond doubt? ---joe stembergerMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Hi, I am working on case assignment in Kannada, a Dravidian language. I am interested in one particular case. In this language, subject NP of a non-finite embedded clause is maked nominative case.(This language is rich in agreement). How could we account for this case given the assumptions with the GB theory? I appreciate if someone out there has any idea how one could account such cases. Also, has any one come across similar cases in any other language?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue