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DO YOU PERCEIVE THIS MESSAGE AS BEING SPOKEN LOUDLY? MOST USERS OF ELECTRONIC MAIL HAVE A SYNESTHETIC REFLEX THAT MAKES THEM WANT TO TELL ALL-CAPS POSTERS TO "STOP SHOUTING". -- cowanMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuesnark.thyrsus.com ...!uunet!cbmvax!snark!cowan e'osai ko sarji la lojban
I'm having trouble understanding Wlodek Zadrozny's claim about well-orderings of finite sets. Specifically, he says that there are "finite sets which cannot be well ordered," for example "a set of balls in a box, which is finite, but, intuitively, not well ordered." There is a big difference between saying that a set "is not totally ordered" or "is not well-ordered" (the two are equivalent for a finite set) and saying that the set "cannot be well-ordered." It is quite easy for a set to satisfy the former condition: it is sufficient that no order has been specified in the current context (e.g. in the current conversation, in the current book, in recent literature in the field). It is also only a temporary condition: I can add a total order to any finite set at any time just by writing down the definition of the order (which is finite). Saying that a set "cannot be well-ordered" is much stronger. In the normal mathematical sense of the term, any finite set can be well-ordered. If a set cannot be well-ordered, that is a permanent mathematical fact about the set. Notice also that a "well-ordering" is simply a particular sort of ordering. Like "partial ordering." It does not mean an order which has been precisely specified or can be computed or is generally accepted. That is, its meaning (in mathematics) is NOT parallel to that of "well-defined." Margaret FleckMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
>From: Pamela Munro <IBENAJYMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueUCLAMVS.bitnet> >Subject: OK Re the suggested Wolof origin of OK There have been many versions of the origin of OK, but it seems that its "true" origins have been conclusively established by one Allen Walker Read of Columbia University in _American Speech_ in 1963 and 1964. As some of the denizens of LINGUIST may not be aware of this, I will summarize it here. "The letters stand for "oll korrect" and are the result of a fad for comical abbreviations that flourished in the 1830s and 1840s. Read buttressed his arguments with hundreds of citations from newspapers and other documents of the period...the fad began in Boston in the summer of 1838...Many of the abbreviations were exaggerated misspellings which were a stock in trade of humourists of the day. One predecessor of OK was OW "oll wright", and there was also KY "know yuse"...Most of the acronyms enjoyed only a brief popularity but OK was an exception... Democratic supporters of Martin Van Buren adopted it as the name of their political club, thereby giving OK a double meaning ("Old Kinderhook" as Van Buren was known, was a native of Kinderhook, NY). OK became the warcry of Tammany hooligans in New York... and was mentioned in newspaper stories across the country...by the time the campaign was over, the expression had taken firm root nationwide..." I quote the above from Cecil Adams' brilliant book _More of the Straight Dope_, a companion volume to his first, _The Straight Dope_. No aspiring know-it-all ought to be without these two books. There's about a billion other theories, but apparently, there's evidence for this one. Wolof? Choctaw? NOT! :) :) By the way, these two books contain chapters on language, where Cecil responds to questions from the Teeming Millions on language issues. He discussed Berlin & Kay's work on colour terms in some detail, in response to a query on whether "primitive" man could see colour, and also discusses eskimo morphology (an early attempt to debunk the Great Eskimo Vocabulary Hoax, though not as rigourous as Pullum.) Hope this is informative, and interesting too! --Zvi zgilbert
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