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Mike Maxwell wrote:
> A few years ago, I developed a grammar of English for a
> parsing program written by Phil Harrison at Boeing
> Computer Services. After reading the above, I thought
> it would be fun to see if "my" grammar parsed the
> sentence ambigously. Phil tried it out, and behold,
> there is also a third parse...
> which can be paraphrased as "the player who was kicked
> the ball that was kicked to him." (Both Ss are reduced
> relatives.)
Right. The Boeing parser (nicknamed the "Sapir Parser" now) produces a total
of 8 parses for the word sequence. Here they are:
[The player kicked the ball] kicked him.
...subject...
[The player] kicked [the ball kicked him].
...object...
[The player kicked] the ball kicked him *gap*. ('kicked' = passive verb in
...topicalized NP... reduced relative)
[The player kicked] the ball kicked him *gap*. ('kicked' = participial adj
...topicalized NP... in reduced relative)
The player kicked [the ball kicked] him. ('kicked' = passive verb...)
...object...
The player kicked [the ball kicked] him. ('kicked' = participial
...object... adj...)
The player kicked the ball kicked him (Mike's NP mentioned above)
[The player kicked] the ball kicked him (meaning roughly
"the player kicked which the ball
kicked him"
> I should mention that Phil had to add a
> subcategorization for this passive to the lexical entry
> for "kick" before the sentence would parse.
Right. But it would have been easier for him to type in the sentence:
The man sent the man sent him.
This string has the same number of parses, but all the ambiguities are
semantically felicitous. The problem with the original sentence was that
it is semantically anomalous to have balls doing the kicking. Nevertheless,
you want your syntactic parser to see all the possibilities in case it
encounters "the man sent..." type of situation. Some people may have trouble
getting the distinction between postmodifier 'sent' as an adjective and as
a verb. It makes more sense if you take a participle like 'joined', where the
semantic distinction between the verb and adjective readings is more salient.
I do not claim that these are all the possible parses, only the ones that our
system has been programmed to generate.
-Rick Wojcik (rwojcik
atc.boeing.com)
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A number of comments and questions regarding the parsing of The player kicked the ball kicked him. Regarding the five possible parses of greenMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueboas.cogsci.uiuc.edu (Georgia Green): I can only get 3 of the 5 parses you claim are valid - can you explain the others? Your parses are: (1) [ the player [ (who) kicked the ball ] ] kicked him At least in my dialect, it is impossible in this case (where relativization is from subject position) to leave out the "who" or "that" - and I believe this is generally the case (please correct me if I am wrong): (a) [ the rat [ that the cat bit ] ] died (a') [ the rat [ the cat bit ] ] died (b) [ the rat [ that bit the cat ] ] died (b') * [the rat [ bit the cat ] ] died (2) [ the player [ (who was) kicked the ball ] ] kicked him Fine. (3) the player kicked [ the ball [ (that was) kicked (to) him ] ] Fine. (4) the player kicked [ the ball [ (that) kicked him ] ] Same comments as for (1). (5) the player complained that the ball kicked him At the risk of making my ignorance public (if it isn't already :-) I must admit that I had to look up "kick" in the dictionary to understand this meaning of the sentence. In an (older) one I found this meaning: "to show opposition, resentment, or discontent" (from Webster's Seventh New Collegiate Dictionary, 1971) Vicki Fromkin <IYO1VAF
MVS.OAC.UCLA.EDU> in 3.212 also suggested this as a possible parse: The player kicked the ball kicked him. The player kicked (complained) (that) the ball kicked him. I have never heard "kick" empoyed this way - is it perhaps not very widely used these days? Regarding the meaning of "garden path" from <00HFSTAHLKE
LEO.BSUVC.BSU.EDU> (Herb Stahlke): It could very well be that the term has "undergone a semantic shift". I have always understood it to refer to structures which, although perfectly grammatical, have a structure which "fools" one into pursuing a straightforward analysis which turns out to be incorrect - leading one down a garden path . . . I must admit I have never heard of it being applied to island violation structures - but then there's a lot I haven't heard of :-) Can anyone enlighten us? Regarding the third possible parse from maxwell
jaars.sil.org: Sounds good to me! I guess I was subconsciously thinking that it had to be a sentence rather than just an NP. Carl Alphonce (alphonce
cs.ubc.ca)
The principal goal seems to be to get a generative grammar, of whatever stripe, to generate only sentences a speaker MIGHT actually use. Many generativists have rejected this goal, after initial flirtations with it some years ago. On the one hand, this rejection seems reasonable, since so much rests on what beliefs various speakers have about the world, rather than about language. On the other hand, languages do have ways of encoding these beliefs formally, and a grammar has to say SOMETHING about this. The trick is to specify the mechanisms and how they encode nonlinguistic beliefs, without enumerating these beliefs. This can be done pretty easily, making a grammar "portable" from one speaker to another, from one knowledge system or belief system to another. I first proposed "grammatical implicationals" back in the mid 1970's to do precisely this, in fact. Disregarding niceties of formulation, such implications take the form "If you believe X, do Y" Examples: 1) If you believe the head denotes human-like objects, use "who" as the relative pronoun. The apparent oddity of such NP's as "the train who arrived late" comes from the fact that it commits a speaker who has this grammatical belief about English to the belief that trains are human-like, a belief most of us don't appear to share. It would be a hideous mistake to assume that the only way to get 1) into a grammar also requires marking the word "train" in the lexicon as [+Human]. 2) A number of African languages show "notional concord"; anaphors and concords are taken from a set of forms indicating animacy when the controlling referring expression, whatever its grammatical gender, is believed to denote an animate object. This is a grammatical fact. But there are mismatches between European and African belief-systems, so what actually gets SAID will vary. For instance, Temnes believe a certain kind of tree is animate (capable of casting spells and the like). This is an anthropological fact. Temnes use animate concords in this case, which the grammar predicts when coupled with the belief-system of a Temne speaker. Europeans speaking Temne use regular gender-contolled concords in this case, though, as the vary same grammar predicts when coupled with their belief- system. The grammars do not differ at all, and it is most expressly NOT the case that a grammar of Temne has to try to specify for every referring expression (an infinitude, by the way) whether its denotation is believed by (some, all, most?) speakers possesses the nonlinguistic property of animacy.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue