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This construction seems to be a Semitism which came into European and other languages through New Testament Greek. Just take a look in any language at Matthew chpt. 6, (Sermon on the Mount): Seek and you shall find (or some similar wording). For an extensive review of the construction, see H.J.Polotsky, Etudes de Syntaxe Copte. Cairo 1944 (Reprinted in his Collected Papers, Jerusalem 1977 , 1st study). Best, Moshe TaubeMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
On "root hog or die": as a native speaker of a dialect of English where this expression is also indubitably native, it is perfectly clear to me that 'hog' is a vocative, and I don't see what punctuation has to do with it. I have known that expression since I was born, and I don't think I ever before saw it written. Jorge Hankamer hankMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueling.ucsc.edu
I was interested to note some French examples in the latest discussion of "imperative-or-not", and also the "gnomic" category suggested for some of the examples in English. I have another example to propose for the gnomic category, which I think cannot be classified as an imperative, since one presumably cannot order someone to love them- Aime moi, aime mon chien. usually given as a proverb, meaning something like take me as I am, accept my prejudices, family, etc. Here the sentence seems to be a type of conditional? Leslie Morgan (Loyola in Md.)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Re: Prof. Nyman's assertion that if one becomes a formal linguist, one will understand the problems with these conjoined sentences. I still fail to see why there is a problem. Perhaps I am unaware of this particular brand of 'formal' linguistics or perhaps I am an off-the-cuff linguist, but why is it a problem if the "underlying" tenses of the conjuncts are different? Isn't this a non-syntactic question on a par with the interpretation of syntactic present tenses as having future or conditional meanings (e.g. Bill leaves on Thursday [spoken on Wednesday], When he drinks, he cries, etc.)? In some registers of Portguese, present tense verb forms are replacing subjunctives, even in the imperative use. Is this a major formal problem?! Infinitives are also used in formal Portuguese 'imperatives' (e.g. Favor (nao) estacionar ... Please do (not) park ...). Then what about 'Go there and ask for your money back', 'Go ask for your money back' in English which in Portuguese are equiva- lent to 'Va la e peca seu dinheiro de volta' and 'Va pedir...' [Imagine dia- critics] which are respectively conjoined subjunctives/imperatives and a subjunctive followed by an infinitive? Perhaps these sentences don't need to be related in either language, although (if my memory serves me) I think I've seen this done in English. Further elucidation?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
'Feed a cold and starve a fever': Is this an example of V and V? Michael M. T. Henderson Linguistics Department University of Kansas Lawrence, KS 66045-2140 (913)864-3450 Bitnet: mmthMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueukanvm Internet:mmth
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