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In my last posting, I referred to some work by Carlson on generics. A
couple people asked me for the references. Unfortunately, I managed
to delete the email from one of them before realizing that the mail
system had sabotaged my reply in an interesting new way that didn't
even leave their return address in the header of the bounced mail. So
I'm reduced to posting the references here:
Carlson, Gregory N.
(1977) ``Reference to Kinds in English,'' Ph.D. thesis,
Department of Linguistics, University of Massachusetts, Amherst,
destributed [softbound] by the Graduate Linguistic Student Association
of that department [at least it was as whenever I got it, maybe 5
years ago?]
(1977) ``A Unified Analysis of the English Bare Plural,'' {\it
Linguistics and Philosophy} 1, pp. 413--457.
Margaret Fleck
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Feminine is the unmarked gender in Arawan languages of Northwestern Amazonas, Brazil. Alan Vogel, UT Arlington has an MA thesis on gender in Jarawa. I have a ms. here at Pitt on gender in Deni and Steve Marlett (SIL Tucson) has some info on Madija. As to any connection with cultural attitudes, gender relations, I have no observations to relate. Dan EverettMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I was just informed today that Cayuga, an Iroquoian language, uses the feminine gender pronoun as the unmarked form, in both singular and plural cases (i.e., a mixed group of both men and women is referred to by the female plural pronoun.) This information is via Carrie Dyck, who wrote her MA Thesis on the phonology of Cayuga (cdyckMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueepas.utoronto.ca) --Zvi zgilbert
epas.utoronto.ca
epas.toronto.edu
Edward Kovach asks if there are any languages with feminine as the unmarked gender. Greville Corbett's book *Gender* (Cambridge Univ. Press, 1991), which I recommend strongly, cites (at least) one language where feminine is claimed to be the unmarked case. The language is Zayse, an Omotic language (spoken in Ethiopia, I presume.) The original reference is Hayward, R.J. 1989. The notion of `default gender': a key to interpreting the evolution of certain verb para- digms in East Ometo, and its implications for Omotic. Afrika und U"bersee 72:17-32. I don't know anything about what the culture of these people might be like, but I wouldn't bet on matriarchy... ****************************************************************************** Aaron Broadwell, Dept. of Linguistics, University at Albany -- SUNY, Albany, NY 12222 gb661Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuethor.albany.edu
John Barnden asked if anyone had proposed using "it" to avoid gender-specificity. Yes. E. Nesbit, early Fabian socialist and author of children's books later read by (among others) Freeman Dyson, regularly used "it" for a child of either gender (but not, I think, for adults). ...Actually I don't know if she _proposed_ using "it", or just _did_ so; but I wouldn't be surprised if there was an explicit proposal somewhere in the Fabian literature.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
John Barnden asks if _it_ had ever been considered as a generic 3 pers. sg. pronoun. Yes. Since the early 1970s _it_ has been frequently proposed, rejected, discussed, reproposed. Earlier still (1880s), _one_ also made the rounds. Interestingly, _it_ has frequently served in English as the pronoun of choice in reference to infants and children. References to "the child . . . it" are common earlier in this century, though I suspect they are less common today, at least in American English; also, _it_ seems to occur now more with infants (whose sex may be harder or less important for the speaker to guess at) than with children, though earlier this distinction did not seem to apply. What is working against acceptance with _it_ is probably its strong marking as nonhuman and possibly also inanimate, as well as its traditional use in (children's/teen) slang to refer derogatorily to another's gender/humanity. Else _it_ would be an ideal candidate; and Early Modern _it_ even more ideal than the it of today, since by then the initial _h_ and confusing variety of forms of Old and ME were pretty much gone, and _its_ was still abuilding: until the 17c. the forms for subject, object, and possessive were all uninflected _it_ (no its, I believe, in the King James version). Dennis Baron debaronMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueuiuc.edu Dept. of English office: 217-244-0568 University of Illinois messages: 217-333-2392 608 S. Wright St fax: 217-333-4321 Urbana IL 61801
Not what Edward Kovach had in mind, alas, but a piece of linguistic Ripley-style "did you know that..". I have it from my late colleague Donald Laycock (Australian National University) that, in a few languages of Papua-New-Guinea (unfortunately I cannot remember any names) there are both masculine and feminine 3rd person pronouns. Nothing strange so far. Now, should a group of persons be all men, except for one, count her: one, lone woman, you use the *feminine* 3rd pl. pronoun. Don's interpretation was: "It's not what you think. In fact, they are as macho a lot as you could ever find. The presence of just one women (and, a fortiori, several) in a group of men is so extraordinary that it warrants using the feminine pronoun."Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue