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re: "zh" versus "dzh" in W. Brewer's list of words (mirage, barrage, etc.) Well, if you're weird, I am, too. At least you're not alone!Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
> Re: 'Feed a cold and starve a fever'
> A (linguist) friend insists that the true version of this is
> 'Feed a cold and starve of fever'.
> That is, the saying really means the opposite of what I, at any rate,
> always thought it meant: if it contains the 'of', it's telling you
> NOT to eat while you have a cold, or you'll die ('starve') of fever.
>
> So, LINGUIST-net enthusiasts, which is it?
>
> Carol Georgopoulos
This seems to be a dispute of long standing. A colleague refers me to
a source, 'Playboy' (circa 1978), where a cartoon of two aging rabbis
(one pointing over the other's shoulder) has the caption: 'See, right
there. In the Talmud. It says "Feed a cold and starve a fever".'
Rosemary Stevenson
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this is what i understand about *gank* gank cannot be properly identified as a new verb in midwest american slang it is used on both the west and east coasts of the united states, being observed throughout southern california and cities in the northeast and may have distribution elsewhere. its meaning is not specifically 'shoplifting'. it is a term equivalent to ripoff, in an abstract sense. its usage is associated with the slang of young black men and women. I suspect it has spread through popular culture. some samples from ice cube: 1) and i'll jack any tom dick and hank. that's the name of the suckers i did gank ---to 'jack' means to steal from as in i would jack them for their nissan trucks--- 2) i couldn't stop you from getting ganked. ---refers to the way his ex-partner is getting ripped-off by his manager--- Brian LinsonMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Am I wrong in assuming that most linguists would say that there is ABSOLUTELY no evidence available that would allow us to answer this question? It seems that some people tend to assume that language arose at the same time as the human species, either because they define Homo sapiens sapiens as the first hominid with language (but that seems to beg the question) or because they cannot imagine either (a) pre-sapiens with language or (b) sapiens without. For whatever amusement value it may have, I have published a paper not too long ago which sketches a way of reasoning which would make language PREDATE the species, and it is not hard to come up with a scenario on which language came (long) after the species. But all these are just plausibility arguments, not evidence one way or the other.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue