Editor for this issue: <>
I agree with Eric Schiller's comment that the "that" in "that good of" is a degree word, but not that the "of" is functioning as a determiner, or that it's promoted to that use by sounding like "a". The problem with saying that is the more common construction "that good of a/an X" which presumably "that good of advertising" (the example my brother gave me) represents an extension of. The construction also doesn't seem to me like hypercorrection. One possibility is that the "of" comes from a superficial misanalysis of "that good a/an X" as an adjective taking an NP as complement. (So maybe that's a kind of correction, and a mistaken one, but not a hyper one.)Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Barbara Abbott wondered about expressions like "they don't have that good of advertising." This looks to me like a generalization of a kind of partitive genitive that has been around in English dialects for a long time. He's not that good of a pitcher. There seems to be some awkwardness about an adjective separated from the following noun by an intervening indefinite article (e.g. in "He's not that good a pitcher"). An adjective before a prepositional phrase seems more digestible. I suspect the construction may have its roots in a real partitive genitive, back in the mists of time. My impression is that the usage spread from mid-Atlantic US "hillbilly" dialects which are known to have preserved archaisms. The generalization is in allowing it in phrases without the indefinite article "a", I suspect only with nouns used in a mass or aggregate sense, like "advertising" in the example you gave, Barbara. But I may be wrong, and this may be dialectal spread of archaic partitive genitive in such cases as well. Bruce Nevin bnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebbn.com
RE Dennis Baron's completive/dribble off. I have no written examples, but a very clear impression of a British English dah di dah di dah dah dah as a fossilised form with perhaps similar functions - origin unkown though!Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Dennis Baron wondered about the origin of "didah didah didah didah didah" for "etc." (Five of them is canonical in my experience.) I always suspected it was a lexification of "dot dot dot" quoting ellipsis marks. Bruce Nevin bnMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuebbn.com
Laurie Bauer (3.440) asked about the meaning of instructions for voice
projection.
>He said . . . 'The main problem is that they speak down here
>[indicating the ventral pharyngeal wall] rather than in the front of their
>mouths'. . . . Can
>anyone interpret this expression? More generally, is there any source which
>interprets in phonetic terms the weird but apparently effective instructions of
>speech and singing teachers, such as 'sing with your forehead'?
All of this refers to a perceived focus of resonance. I think Liberman
and Blumstein talk about it a bit in their book on linguistic phonetics,
but don't have my copy handy to check. Sorry, I don't know any studies
of the articulatory correlates of different vocal qualities. A
"covered" tone or "chest" tone seems to have higher frequencies damped,
and so is less "penetrating". A "covered" tone seems to me to be
produced by expansion of the pharynx ("yawning"). A "head" tone seems
to be a resonance through the sinus cavities that may be helped or
initiated by something like pharyngealization. (It feels something like
nasalization, but visual inspection in a mirror suggests not.)
Differences of vowel quality may be involved. It seems to me that
serious studies of vocal differences would be very useful, and there may
indeed be some in the pages of JASA. (I remember seeing a JASA paper on
how Tibetan monks do their famous "two-voice" chanting.) I too would
like to know more about this.f
Bruce Nevin
bn
bbn.com
Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue