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re: like I remember this as a filler word back in the 70's. It was often combined with "you know" - "he's goin', like you know, this is just kind of really wierd....you know?" I don't think one should attribute any subtle semantic functions to this sort of padding. My personal theory, for what it's worth, is that it results from the extreme compression of spoken English (especially when the anglo-saxon vocabulary dominates) which means the average slow moving teen-age brain finds it hard to generate semantic content fast enough to keep up with the average fast moving teen-age mouth: the padding gives semantic generation time to catch up with verbal output. In Italian, where most linguistic units are longer, I didn't notice the same phenomenon. Philip Swann University of GenevaMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Richard Ogden seems dissatisfied with my point that there may be cases where phoneticians do not hear things as they are, and says that this would simply mean the phonetician is no good. I do not mean to start a debate, especially since I am writing a paper on this, but I would point out that there is literature which does imply that there are cases where what I said MUST be the case, no matter how good the phonetician. There is the entire literature on incomplete neutralization, which claims that in Russian, Polish, German, and Catalan (which every phonetician has always heard as having absolute total exceptionless final devoicing), there are small but systematic measurable differences in the way underlying voiced and voiceless finals are realized (differences realized in the preceding vowel usually, as I understand). Now, the differences in question are so small that we could not expect a human phonetician to hear them. Of course, there has been a lively debate as to whether these findings are correct (and I myself have a paper pending which argues that at least some of these, notably in the case of Catalan, are not correct). Nevertheless, it is legitimate to ask whether such phenomena exist--or at least whether they have been claimed to exist. And that's really all that I am asking. I might add that the instrumental findings which show that words 'lucky' and 'bugger' have intervocalic fricatives seem to me quite consistent with the fact that pretty decent phoneticians often describe these as stops, namely, these fricatives are utterly different from a good ach-laut or gamma. Although here, too, it would be nice to know what exactly has been claimed about these phenomena. For example, have there been phoneticians who noticed them WITHOUT the aid of instruments?Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Re 'the good ear of a phonetician' or 'the ear of a good phonetician' -- there is a quote from Henry Sweet to the effect that he would rather trust the ear of a phonetician than any instrumentation. If anyone wants the exact quote and citation I'll look it up. Vicki FromkinMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue