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Because of some e-mail difficulties, I have missed part of the discussion on devoicing of final obstruents and supposed acoustic differences in the quality of morphemically voiceless consonants and those which originate by devoicing of morphemically voiced ones. So I apologize if I am repeating a question that may have been answered before: There are many languages (Slavic, for example) where the opposite also happens and morphemically voiceless consonants become voiced in certain environments. My question is: Is there any evidence that here, too, there may be differences (perceptual or acoustic) between the two kinds of voiced consonants, depending on their morphemic status? Henry KuceraMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
I am researching on text encoding and text analysis. I will welcome Bibliographic information or other helps related with this subjects. thanks F Zeidan. e-mail: tucusitoMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuekokuki.kuaero.kyoto-u.ac.jp Kyoto University. Japan.
I am interested in obtaining information (references, software, and products) concerning lexical segmentation. In particular, I am looking for work relating to segmentation techniques for Japanese and Chinese. Your responses are appreciated. Bob Kuhns kuhnsMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueworld.std.com