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Many languages have a 2-way contrast between alienable and inalienable possession. For example, 'my arm' and 'my house' may have different morphology connected with possession. A student of mine is working with a language that appears to have a 3-way contrast in alienability -- most alienable, moderately alienable, and least alienable. Has anyone heard of another language with similar distinctions? Reply to me and I'll post a summary. Thanks, Aaron Broadwell (aa2492Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issueuokvmsa.bitnet) Univ. of Oklahoma
I would be grateful for any information about studies of non- affixational derivational morphology in English. By this I mean cases such as FOOD/FEED, SALE/SELL, SONG/SING, where the morphological relationship is (arguably) carried by the vowel change in the stem. I am also interested in cases such THIEF/THIEVE, GRIEF/GRIEVE, as well as more marginal cases where some form of affix also seems to be present (THIEVE/THEFT). Apart from information about references, I would be interested in any leads to lists of English words exhibiting these kinds of relations. William Marslen-Wilson ubjta38Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issuecu.bbk.ac.uk
I would like to receive references in the literature to any recent work (i.e. since c. 1980) done on whole-verb inversion in English; i.e. examples like: On the table sits a lamp. In walked Mary. "I'm here", said John. First comes an explanation. (I distinguish this type of inversion from auxiliary inversion, which is associated with messages of hypotheticality or questioning.) Please address responses directly to me. I will be glad to forward what responses I get to other interested parties.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue