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I was suprised and gratified to receive (so far) more than twenty private responses to my query about "could[n't] care less," in addition to the postings that appeared on Linguist. I could hardly to justice to the various interesting opinions in a brief summary, but here are just a few of the most often cited observations (without attribution, in order not the misrepresent anybody): 1. The form "could care less" is certainly not new in American English; people remember it going back to the 1960's, if not before. 2. I have receive no communications about British English but did get one about Australian English where the expression seems to occur in specific contexts only, apparenlty as an "americanization". 3. The most common explanations (some of which were also given in the postings on Linguist) include: "less" as a sufficient negation; [n't] as a phonetically "weak" element dropped; the expression as intentional irony or sarcasm; a change that results in a less "pedantic" or--as one person said-- "cool" sounding expression & the general complex negation functions discussed in the public postings. 4. One speaker (born in Alabama and educated at Harvard) claims to use both expressions interchangeably, depending on circumstances. This suggests a "register" factor, also mentioned by others. 5. I have also learned that the problem of correctness has been discussed in Ann Landers' column in the past (no references). Three respondents thought that the form without the negative was a simple mistake that gets corrected occasionally (or should be). Only one person (a non-linguist) said bluntly that "could care less" is just a "dumb mistake". Linguists are a generous lot, it seems. Many thanks to all who responded. Henry KuceraMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Just 2 quick words about the "ne expressif" of French. (1) We know that these started centuries ago, at a time when 'ne' WAS the normal negative marker, and (2) Many other languages have such constructions, often using the same negative marker which they normally use (e.g., Polish).Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
A couple of possibly interesting points relevant to the discussion of the construction 'could(n't) care less' that, as far as i can tell, haven't been made yet. (1) Although this isn't true in all languages, in English as in many other 'Standard Average European' languages negative morphenes tend to be relatively unaccented, ergo easily elided from a phonological point of view-- witness the fact that, alongside 'could care less' and 'couldn't care less', the phrase 'could not care less' is heavily marked, at least in my judgment. (2) The construction 'could(n't) care less' has no competition: I have never to my knowledge come across any English speaker (native or otherwise) use it, with or without the negative marker on the auxiliary, to express anything other than total disinterest. In other words, the following utterance would strike me as definitely weird, and possibly unidiomatic: ??? I definitely care about acing the final; i could care less if i had done better on the midterm. 'might care less' might be acceptable in this context; 'would care less', while rather marginal in my judgment, is definitely better than 'could care less' in this context. My point is that, since 'could care less' serves no other function in Standard English, it can be appropriated as a semantic doublet for the version with the overt negative marker on the auxiliary. Steven Schaufele University of IllinoisMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue