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In # 3.860, Makoto SHIMIZU writes > 3) As far as I know, when you modify the English personal pronouns > with adjectives, you'll get highly marked expressions such as; > > ?the beautiful I > > But in Japanese, the equivalent is totally unmarked; > > utsukushii watashi The "subjective" or "nominative" pronouns in modern English are generally replaced in non-subject position by the "objective" forms. (Warning: This formulation is sloppy and inadequate.) This change produces a much more acceptable construction: Oh, beautiful me! Clever him! I find these forms slightly odd, and Shimizu's "the beautiful I" nearly or totally unacceptable. Of course, this has no bearing on Shimizu's argument that such Japanese words as "watashi" and "boku" should be considered (members of the large general class of) nominals rather than (members of a highly specialized subset called) pronouns. Mark A. Mandel Dragon Systems, Inc. : speech recognition : +1 617 965-5200 320 Nevada St. : Newton, Mass. 02160, USA Tlhingan khol daghojbe'chugh vaj bikhegh.Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue
Has anyone noticed the irony in the fact that just as almost all female ending morphemes have disappeared (waitress is most resistent) from professions and nationalities (ie., the decline and fall of HOSTESS, POETESS, and JEWESS) for a mix of political and social reasons; all of sudden we have LATINO/A. That seems to be the most pc way to refer to Iberian-language speaking Americans, at least in NY. It seems that the peculiar sporadic English propensity to import foreign morphology along with a loan word is threatening to reimport via the back door just the sort of gender marking on one word that would be consi- dered totally out of place on another. Furthermore, o/a distinction remains presumably because it is found on the word in the original language and there- fore is, presumably, considered correct in the same way that CORPORA & INDICES are. Yet would we be willing to also import the plural for a group of Latin American containing members of both sexes: ie.the masc. pl. LATINOS, and there- by reimport the highly un-pc unmarked masculine? I don't think so. MichaelMail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue