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Alexis Manaster-Ramer assumes that word-classes (aka parts of speech - a dreadful term!) are cross-classified, but it's an interesting and important question whether this is really true. In contrast with say phonemes, it's by no means obvious that they are. He quotes the range of pro-forms that can stand in for verbs, nouns an on, but why should we think that they constitute a word-class (rather than, say, sharing the property of involving identity-of-sense anaphora)? As for ad-X, where X ranges over various word- classes, it's true that there are differences, but why should these involve cross-classification, rather than a non-cross-classifying distinction between adjective and adverb? I notice that he doesn't assume the much more standard cross-classifying analysis of word classes in terms of +/- N and V, which also strikes me as not obviously true. My own conclusion, for what it's worth, is that word-classes are in fact hierarchical (in an inheritance hierarchy), just as in traditional grammar, in sharp contrast with morpho-syntactic features, which are truly cross- classificatory. Dick Hudson Dept of Phonetics and Linguistics, University College London, Gower Street, London WC1E 6BT (071) 387 7050 ext 3152Mail to author|Respond to list|Read more issues|LINGUIST home page|Top of issue